General Administration | POSH | RTI | Staff Regulation ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 84 MCQs

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General Administration | POSH | RTI | Staff Regulation ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 84 MCQs

Q 1 / 84
As per the Record Management Policy,
what is the maximum number of paper sheets
that should be kept in a single file before a new volume is started?
A. 100
B. 150
C. 250
D. 500
An employee who is arrested or detained under any process of law is liable to be placed
under what administrative action by the Competent Authority?
A. Immediate dismissal
B. Compulsory retirement
C. Suspension
D. A pay reduction
The Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is obtained from bidders to ensure their
seriousness.
What is the standard range for the EMD amount?
A. 1% of the expected annual procurement
B. 2% of the expected annual procurement
C. 5% of the expected annual procurement
D. A fixed amount of ₹10,000
The Bank's "Whistle Blower Policy" allows serving employees to lodge complaints
regarding corruption or misuse of office. Who is the designated officer under this policy
to receive such complaints?
A. The Governor
B. The Executive Director of HRMD
C. The Chief Vigilance Officer of the Bank
D. The Secretary to the Central Board
What is the name of the committee that was re-christened from the Library Advisory
Committee to advise on library and information systems?
A. Knowledge Management Committee
B. Information Management Committee
C. Central Library Committee
D. Academic Advisory Council
What principle of budgeting does the Bank follow, where the annual plan of activities
drives the expenditure?
A. Top-down budgeting
B. Zero-based budgeting
C. Incremental budgeting
D. Activity-based budgeting
The Staff Suggestion Scheme, which provides a forum for participative management,
was rebranded in 2022 as:
A. Samadhan
B. Prayas
C. Sujhav
D. Utkarsh
Can budgetary allocation from one major head of account be interchanged with
another major head of account?
A. Yes, with the approval of the Head of Department.
B. Yes, with the approval of CSBD.
C. Yes, with the approval of the Executive Director.
D. No, interchangeability between major heads is not permitted.
The payment of dearness allowance to the Bank's employees is linked to which specific
index?
A. Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
B. Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees
C. All-India Average Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers
D. Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI)
An officer has just retired. In the context of record management, for how long does
the Bank need to preserve their Performance Appraisal Report (PAR) folders containing
physical PARs up to the up to Review Period 2023-24?
A. 1 year from the date of retirement
B. 3 years from the date of retirement
C. 5 years from the date of retirement
D. 10 years from the date of retirement
An employee requests a change in their declared place of domicile for LFC purposes.
Which of the following factors would the Competent Authority consider genuine reasons
for approving such a change, provided it is the first such request?
1. The employee has recently acquired immovable property at the new location.
2. The employee's near relatives have a permanent address at the new location.
3. The new location is the employee's place of birth, which was not declared initially.
4. The employee wishes to change it for tourism purposes.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
The manual outlines specific procedures for handling secret correspondence. Which
of the following practices are mandated?
1. Secret letters must be enclosed in double covers.
2. The inner cover should be marked 'Secret' and sealed.
3. The inner cover should be addressed personally to the recipient by name.
4. Secret letters can be sent via regular email for delivery.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
During the annual physical verification of a library with 60,000 books, it is found that
10 books are missing.
What is the most appropriate first step according to the manual?
A. Immediately recover the cost of all 10 books from the librarian's salary.
B. Determine if the loss is within the reasonable limit of five books per one thousand issued. (Page 198)
C. Initiate disciplinary action against the entire library staff.
D. Close the procurement/ issuing process until all the missing books are found.
A Budgeting Unit (BU) needs an additional revenue budget of ₹5 lakh in the third
quarter. The head of the BU has delegated powers to approve this, subject to certain
conditions. What is one of the key conditions?
A. The request must not exceed 50% of the initial budget for that head.
B. The request must not exceed 100% of the initial budget for that head.
C. Such requests can only be approved in the fourth quarter.
D. The total of such approvals must be reported to the Central Office directly.
(Assertion-Reason)
Assertion (A): Routine remarks, marginal/ brief notes can be written directly on letters
or on the reverse of the letters received by the department.
Reason (R): No remarks of any kind should be made on letters that are likely to be
produced before a Court of Law or Tribunal.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
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An officer is charge-sheeted for a serious misconduct, and a departmental inquiry is
initiated. During the inquiry, the Presenting Officer (PO) presents strong evidence.
Before the inquiry is complete, the officer tenders their resignation.
What is the correct
course of action for the Disciplinary Authority?
A. Accept the resignation immediately to close the matter and avoid a lengthy inquiry process.
B. Reject the resignation and wait for the officer to reach the age of superannuation.
C. Withhold the acceptance of the resignation until the conclusion of the disciplinary proceedings and the final order is passed.
D. Accept the resignation but make a note in the officer's service record that an inquiry was pending.
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A female employee who gets married wants to change her surname in the Bank's
records. While a marriage invitation card is an acceptable initial document, what does
the manual suggest she should be advised to submit in due course?
A. An affidavit sworn before a Notary Public.
B. A copy of the certificate issued by the Registrar of Marriages.
C. A letter of confirmation from her spouse.
D. A new gazette notification for the name change.
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A department needs to transfer non-current permanent records to the Reserve Bank
of India Archives (RBIA) in Pune. Which criteria and procedures apply?
1. The records must be closed for more than 12 years.
2. The records must have historical and/or legal value.
3. Two copies of a transmittal list must be sent to the Archives in advance for scrutiny. (Page 132)
4. The records should be sent on a "freight to pay" basis.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
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A Class III/ IV employee who is part of the Territorial Army is required to undergo
mandatory training. The manual states that the Bank may issue a certificate for this
purpose. What does this certificate primarily assure the military authorities?
A. That the employee's salary will be paid by the Bank during training.
B. That the employee's service will be made available for training and embodiment when required.
C. That the Bank will sponsor the training expenses.
D. That the employee will receive a promotion upon completion of the training.
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The Monthly Work Certificate (MWC) submitted by heads of departments serves as
a key monitoring tool. Besides routine work, what additional information should be
furnished as part of the MWC?
1. A list of employees with unregularized leave during the month.
2. The department's budget utilization for the month.
3. Pendency in key activities, which need to be brought to the notice of the Head of the Office.
4. Concerns related to high-risk areas identified in Risk Registers.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
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Case Study: Budget Allocation
Instructions: You are a budget officer tasked with calculating the additional funds
required for the 'Repairs and Maintenance' budget for the remainder of the financial
year. Analyze the following financial data and apply the relevant rule to determine the
precise shortfall.
Initial Budget Status:
• Total Budget Sanctioned: ₹45,00,000
• Expenditure to Date: ₹38,75,000
New Expenditure Proposals:
• AMC for Air-Conditioning Plant: A quoted amount of ₹5,75,000 (exclusive of 18%
GST).
• Official Vehicle Repair: A quotation of ₹1,50,000.
• Miscellaneous Electrical Works: An estimated cost of ₹3,50,000.
Applicable Rule for Vehicle Repairs:
The total expenditure on repairs for a single vehicle in a financial year must not exceed
30% of its Insured Declared Value (IDV). For this specific vehicle, the IDV is ₹12,00,000,
and a prior repair costing ₹2,50,000 has already been booked in the current financial
year.
Based on this information,
what is the exact amount of additional budget required to
meet all admissible new expenditures?
A. ₹5,53,500
B. ₹4,10,000
C. ₹5,13,500
D. ₹4,50,000
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Case Study: The Complex Resignation Settlement
An Officer in Grade 'A' resigns after 9 years and 8 months of confirmed service. On the
date of his approved resignation, his Ordinary Leave (OL) balance is 220 days. He has an
outstanding Housing Loan principal of ₹10,00,000, for which he is a member of the
mandatory Group Term Insurance Scheme. He also has a library book overdue for 100
days (fine of ₹5/day is applicable after 60 days).
Which of the following represents the correct final settlement calculation and
entitlements?
A. Encashment of 110 days of OL, full gratuity payment, deduction of ₹10,00,000 for housing loan, and a deduction of ₹200 for library fine.
B. Encashment of 110 days of OL, no gratuity as service is less than 10 years, deduction of ₹10,00,000 for housing loan, and a deduction of ₹200 for library fine.
C. Encashment of 110 days of OL, no gratuity, the housing loan is settled by the insurance policy, and deduction of ₹500 for library fine.
D. Encashment of 150 days of OL, pro-rata gratuity payment, deduction of ₹10,00,000 for housing loan, and no library fine as it is waived on cessation of service.
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Case Study: The Officer's Compliance Maze
An Officer in Grade ‘D’ at the Mumbai Office has a monthly basic pay of ₹1,20,000. On July
10, 2024, he sends a consolidated request to his Regional Director covering the following
points:
• He seeks post-facto approval for a transaction made on July 1, where he purchased a
flat in his own name for ₹70 lakhs, funded by a ₹50 lakh Bank housing loan and ₹20
lakhs from personal savings.
• He reports that his spouse (a homemaker) purchased shares worth ₹2,50,000 on July 5
from her personal savings.
• He seeks permission to accept an invitation from a local management institute to be a
guest lecturer for a weekend seminar in August, for which he will receive an
honorarium.
• He requests an NOC for a Tatkal passport for his son, who has secured admission to a
university abroad and needs to travel urgently.
As the Office-Incharge,
what is the only correct and fully compliant set of actions you
can take?
A. Approve the housing loan post-facto, acknowledge the share transaction report, approve the guest lecture assignment, and issue the NOC for the Tatkal passport.
B. Initiate disciplinary proceedings for the property purchase without prior permission, forward the guest lecture request to HRMD (CO), acknowledge the share transaction, and issue the NOC.
C. Advise the officer that prior permission was needed for the flat but regularize it; note that the share transaction exceeded twice the basic pay and should have been reported within a week; reject the guest lecture request as it needs CO approval; and issue the NOC.
D. Initiate disciplinary proceedings for the property purchase; note that the share transaction required reporting within a week; forward the part-time assignment request to HRMD (CO) as per protocol for Grade 'D' officers; and issue the NOC on specific request.
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Case Study: ZTC participation rate
You are a senior officer in the Central Office reviewing a budget proposal from a Zonal
Training Centre (ZTC) for the second half of the financial year (HY-II). Based only on
the financial data and management directives provided below, you are required to
determine the optimum average number of participants the ZTC can train per
programme.
Financial Status & Projections:
• Total Annual Budget (FY 2025-26): ₹45,00,000
• Actual Expenditure for First Half-Year (HY-I): ₹24,15,500
• Proposed Number of Training Programmes in HY-II: 14
Standard Cost Structure Per Training Programme:
1. Fixed Costs:
• Faculty Expenditure: ₹1,50,000
• Course Material: ₹15,000
• Contingency Expenses: ₹10,000
2. Variable (Per-Participant) Costs:
• Boarding & Lodging: ₹5,000
• Travel Expenditure: ₹2,500
Management Directives for HY-II:
• An additional budget of ₹10,00,000 is sanctioned to meet the deficit.
• To promote cost efficiency, the total expenditure on the "Faculty Expenditure" head for
HY-II must be reduced by 10% from its standard projected cost.
• The "Contingency Expenses" head must be capped at a total of ₹1,00,000 for all 14
programmes combined.
What is the procedurally correct way to get both projects
approved?
After applying all the management directives, what is the optimum average number
of participants per programme that the ZTC can train in the second half-year within its
newly revised total available budget?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
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Case Study : Security Breach Threat vs Personal Emergency
Mr. Sharma, an Assistant Manager in your department, is a highly dedicated and reliable officer
with over 25 years of unblemished service. You have known him professionally for a long time
and hold him in high regard.
Today, at 5:30 PM, a junior officer, Ms. Verma, sends you a formal, written complaint via
email. She reports that she found a folder marked "SECRET - Central Board Memorandum"
lying unattended on Mr. Sharma's desk. The office was nearly empty, and Mr. Sharma was not
at his workstation. As per protocol, she secured the document and immediately reported the
serious security lapse.
You call Mr. Sharma on his mobile phone. He is audibly distressed and explains that he had to
rush out of the office an hour ago because he received a call that his wife had suffered a severe
heart attack and was being taken to the hospital. In his panic, he admits he completely forgot
about the sensitive document he was reviewing.
As the Disciplinary Authority for Mr. Sharma, you are now faced with a confirmed, serious
security breach on one hand, and a deeply compelling personal emergency involving a trusted,
long-serving colleague on the other.
What is the most appropriate and emotionally intelligent initial action for you to take
in this situation?
A. Place Mr. Sharma under immediate suspension pending a full inquiry. The security breach is a grave offense, and the rules must be applied without emotion or exception to send a strong message about security protocols.
B. Acknowledge Ms. Verma's report but, given Mr. Sharma's exemplary record and the extreme circumstances, treat it as a lapse born of panic. Decide to counsel Mr. Sharma privately once his family situation stabilizes and close the matter informally.
C. Acknowledge the gravity of the security breach reported by Ms. Verma. Send a compassionate but formal email to Mr. Sharma, acknowledging his personal emergency, but also informing him that a preliminary inquiry into the security lapse will be initiated and he will be given a full opportunity to state the facts of his case in due course.
D. Call Ms. Verma and, while appreciating her diligence, explain the extreme mitigating circumstances behind Mr. Sharma's lapse. Suggest that she consider withdrawing her formal written complaint so the matter can be handled internally without escalating to a formal disciplinary track.
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Case Study: The Performance Appraisal Conflict
You are the HoD and the 'Accepting Authority' for your department's Performance Appraisal
Reports (PARs). You are faced with a complex situation involving two of your officers.
Analyze the scenario and choose the most appropriate course of action.
Mr. Gupta is a Grade 'B' officer who is a technical expert in his field but is widely known for
his poor interpersonal skills and abrasive communication style. His Reporting Officer (a Grade
'D' Officer) has given him an outstanding performance rating in the PAR, focusing solely on
his high-quality technical output and achievement of targets. The report makes no mention of
his behavioral issues.
Simultaneously, you receive a formal grievance submitted through the official Grievance
Redressal Mechanism from Ms. Das, a Grade 'A' officer who works with Mr. Gupta. In her
grievance, she provides a detailed, documented account of three separate instances where Mr.
Gupta's rude behavior and refusal to cooperate on team projects created a hostile work
environment and delayed critical deliverables. She states that she feels her own performance is
being unfairly impacted by his conduct.
You are now in possession of an PAR praising Mr. Gupta's performance and a formal
grievance detailing his serious misconduct. As the Accepting Authority,
what is the most
emotionally intelligent and procedurally sound action to take?
A. Withhold the final acceptance of Mr. Gupta's PAR. Initiate a formal inquiry into Ms. Das's grievance. If the grievance is substantiated, return the PAR to the Reporting Officer with instructions to include adverse remarks regarding Mr. Gupta's behavior.
B. Accept Mr. Gupta's outstanding PAR as submitted, as his technical performance is not in dispute. Separately, forward Ms. Das's grievance to the HR department to be handled as a standard interpersonal conflict, delinking it from the performance appraisal process.
C. Call both the Reporting Officer and Mr. Gupta for an informal counseling session. Explain the importance of teamwork and soft skills, and record a note in Mr. Gupta's file, but allow the outstanding rating to stand to avoid demotivating a technical expert. Dismiss the formal grievance as resolved through counseling.
D. As the Accepting Authority, use your discretion to directly write a counter-opinion in the APAR, downgrading Mr. Gupta's rating from 'Outstanding' to 'Good' and adding a remark about his need to improve his interpersonal skills, thereby closing both the PAR and the grievance in a single action..
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Sexual harassment at workplace is prohibited under section ____ of the RBI Staff
Regulations 1948 and was introduced in the year _____
A. Sec 41 C, 2002
B. Sec 40 C, 2001
C. Sec 40 D, 1998
D. Sec 41 B, 1999
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The procedures for handling complaints of sexual harassment in the Bank are not
applicable in
which of the following cases?
A. the defendant is an employee of the Bank and the complainant is an employee of the Bank.
B. the defendant is an employee of the Bank and the alleged act of sexual harassment has been committed outside the workplace as defined in the regulations.
C. the defendant is an employee of the Bank and the complainant is not an employee of the Bank.
D. None of the above
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Which of the following is incorrect regarding the composition of the Central
Complaints Committee (CCC) set up for handling sexual harassment cases in the Bank?
A. It shall be constituted with at least 8 members and shall be headed by a lady officer of the Bank not below the rank of an officer in Grade 'F'.
B. The Chairperson and the members of the committee shall be nominated by HRMD, CO with the approval of CGM-in-Charge, HRMD.
C. One member from amongst non-governmental organizations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment.
D. During the period of temporary absence of the Chairperson, the senior most lady member of the CCC will act as the Chairperson of CCC to look after its affairs.
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In order to strengthen the Grievance Redressal mechanism in the Bank for sexual
harassment related complaints, a system of __________ has been introduced from
September 10, 2009.
A. Internal complaints committees.
B. Central Complaints committee.
C. Councellors.
D. External member from NGO’s.
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Which of the following mechanism for handling complaints of sexual harassment cases
are not true?
A. The CCs constituted at various CODs/ROs and CCC constituted at HRMD, CO, shall perform the role of “Internal Complaints Committee” envisaged under the Act.
B. In case the defendant who has been accused of sexual harassment is the head of the Office/COD, the complaint shall be investigated by the CC.
C. Where either the complainant or the defendant or both, involved in the alleged act of sexual harassment is/are senior to the Chairperson of the CCs concerned, the PCGMs/CGM-i-Cs/RDs may at his/her discretion, appoint a lady officer...
D. Where the complainant or the defendant involved in the alleged acts of sexual harassment are junior in the same grade or belongs to junior grades as that of the Chairperson of the CCs, the CCs may investigate/inquire into the complaints.
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Which of the following forms part of the procedures for dealing with Sexual
harassment complaints by the central complaints committee (CCC) / Complaints
Committees (CCs)?
1. On receipt of the complaint, the CCC/CCs shall ensure that one copy of the complaint
received from the complainant is provided to the defendant within seven working days from
the date of receipt of complaint.
2. The CCC/CCs may before commencing investigation/enquiry and at the request of the
complainant, take steps to settle the matter between the complainant and the defendant either
directly or with the help of counsellors appointed by the CODs/ROs.
3. CCC/CCs shall attempt to resolve the complaint through the process of conciliation in an
expeditious manner, within ten working days from the date of receipt of complaint or the date
on which such an incident was brought to the notice of the counselor/CCC/CCs (where formal
complaint was not lodged).
4. The preliminary investigation and the firming up of an opinion by CCC/CCs shall be
concluded within a period of fifteen working days from the date of receipt of reply from the
defendant.
A. 1 & 3 above
B. all of the above
C. 1, 2 & 3 above
D. 1 & 2 above
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During the pendency of enquiry in sexual harassment cases the CCCs/CCs may
recommend to the PCGM/CGM-in-Charge/Regional Director of the COD/RO to:
1. transfer the complainant concerned or the defendant to any other department/Office
2. grant leave to the complainant up to a period of two months
3. restrain the defendant from acting as reporting/reviewing officer of the complainant
4. should keep in touch with the complainant to ensure that she does not face any
discrimination or any other type of harassment at the hands of the defendant.
A. All of the above
B. 1, 3 & 4 above
C. 1, 2 & 3 above
D. 1 & 2 above
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Which of the following procedures specified to be followed by the CCCs/CCs in case of
a domestic enquiry in sexual harassment cases within the Bank are incorrect?
1. commence the proceedings of domestic enquiry by fixing the date for first hearing by
issuing a notice to the complainant/Presenting Officer(PO)/defendant/Defence
Representative(DR), within ten working days from the date of receipt of names of PO and
DR.
2. the entire procedure of domestic enquiry, commencing from the date of issue of charge
sheet to the defendant till the date of completion of enquiry shall in any case not exceed
60 working days.
3. CCC/CCs shall submit a detailed report of the enquiry and shall arrive at the
conclusion as to whether the charges against the defendant are proved or not to the
competent authority within a period of seven working days from the date of completion
of domestic enquiry.
4. In case the CCC/CCs comes to a conclusion that the charges are not proved, it shall
recommend to the Competent Authority that no action is required to be taken in the
matter. In case the CCC/CCs comes to a conclusion that the charges are proved it shall,
in terms of Section 10 (3) of the Act, recommend to the Competent Authority to impose
appropriate penalties as per the Staff Regulations.
A. None of the above
B. All of the above
C. Only 1 & 2
D. Only 2 & 4 above
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Which of the following actions by the Competent Authority, handling a case of sexual
harassment is not as per the extant provisions?
1. forward the reply given by the defendant along with his/her views to CCC/CCs for
reconsideration/review within five working days from the date of receipt of reply from
the complainant.
2. Proceed with imposition of penalty on the defendant based on the recommendation
made by CCC/CCs.
3. the Competent Authority may issue a show-cause notice to the defendant, as to why
the suggested penalty shall not be imposed, within seven working days from the date of
receipt of reply from the defendant to the report of CCC/CCs or within seven working
days from the date of receipt of reply from CCC/CCs on review/reconsideration, as the
case maybe.
4. On receipt of reply to the show-cause notice from the defendant, the Competent
Authority shall pass final order of penalty within a period of twelve working days from
the date of its receipt of reply to the show cause notice from the defendant.
A. only 1 above
B. None of the above
C. only 4 above
D. 3 & 4 above
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Which of the following statements regarding actions taken by the CCC/CCs & the
Competent Authority in case of false or malicious complaints of sexual harassment in
office is correct?
1. to be treated as misconduct under the Staff Regulations and action shall be taken
against the complainant.
2. the Competent Authority shall take disciplinary action against the defendant
concerned as per instructions given in the Master Circular on Staff Discipline.
3. mere inability on the part of the defendant to substantiate the complaint or provide
adequate proof would not be construed as a false or malicious complaint.
A. 1 & 2 above
B. only 1 above
C. all of the above
D. 1 & 3 above
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Which of the following provisions regarding prevention of sexual harassment that
needs to be incorporated in the AMC agreements entered into with various contractors?
1. The Bank shall be solely responsible for full compliance with the provisions of "the
Sexual Harassment of women at work place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act,
2013".
2. In case of any complaint of sexual harassment against its employee within the premises
of the Bank, the complaint will be filed before the Internal Complaints Committee
constituted by the bank and it shall ensure appropriate action under the said Act in
respect to the complaint.
3. The contractor shall be responsible for any monetary compensation that may need to
be paid in case the incident involves the employees of the contractor, if sexual violence by
the employee of the contractor is proved.
4. Any complaint of sexual harassment from any aggrieved employee of the contractor
against any employee of the Bank shall be taken cognizance of by the Regional
Complaints Committee constituted by the Bank.
A. all of the above
B. 1, 2 & 3 above
C. 1, 3 & 4 above
D. 3 & 4 above
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With regard to Performance Management System, the Bank has issued the following
instructions in cases involving sexual harassment complaints raised by the Appraisee
officer against the reporting/reviewing officers?
1. in cases where the Appraisee Officer has levelled a charge against the Reporting
Officer and the issue is either pending or the charges have been proved, the report of the
Appraisee Officer for that Reporting period shall be recorded directly by the Reviewing
Officer.
2. in cases where the Appraisee Officer has levelled a charge against the Reporting
Officer and the issue is either pending or the charges have been proved, the report of the
Appraisee Officer for that Reporting period shall be recorded by another reporting
officer assigned by the bank and reviewed by the Reviewing Officer.
3. In cases where the charges of sexual harassment has been levelled against the
Reviewing Officer, the bank may assign another reviewing officer, and the report will be
placed before the Review Committee.
4. In cases where the charge of sexual harassment has been levelled against a member
of the Review Committee, then such a member shall not be part of the Review Committee
for moderation of the score of that particular Appraisee Officer.
A. All of the above
B. 2, 3 & 4 above
C. 1 & 4 above
D. 1 & 3 above
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As per the POSH Act, an internal complaints committee (ICC) must be constituted in
organisations with
A. 5 or more employees
B. 10 or more employees
C. 20 or more employees
D. 50 or more employees
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Which of the following statements are True?
1. If the aggrieved woman is unable to file a complaint herself, someone else can file it
on her behalf.
2. The ICC can initiate disciplinary action even without conducting an enquiry.
3. The ICC must include at least 60% women members
4. The ICC report is binding on the employer
A. 1 & 4 above
B. 2 & 4 above
C. 1, 2 & 4 above
D. 1, 3 & 4 above
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In
which of the following scenarios an enquiry can be initiated under the POSH Act
by the Complaints Committee?
1. An officer of the Bank spreads non-sexual malicious rumours about a woman
employee affecting her reputation.
2. A woman employee of the bank verbally complained to HRMD about harassment but
did not submit a written complaint.
3. During a virtual meeting, a male colleague uses inappropriate background images
and make suggestive comments.
4. Two colleagues are in a consensual relationship, but later one partner claims
harassment after a breakup.
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2, 3 & 4
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. All of the above
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An RBI officer is on an official, multi-day tour to another city for a series of meetings
with a regulated financial institution. One evening, after the scheduled meetings are over,
he attends a formal dinner hosted by the institution. After the dinner, he offers a ride in
his officially provided car back to the hotel to a junior female analyst from that
institution. Also in the car is a female student who is on a summer internship with the
RBI at that office and was assisting the officer. During the ride, the officer makes
unwelcome, sexually colored remarks to the analyst. The analyst is shaken but does not
react. The intern, who witnesses the entire exchange, is deeply disturbed by her senior's
conduct. The next day, the intern decides she must report the incident.
Based on the definitions provided in the POSH Act,
what is the correct procedural
standing for a complaint to be filed with the RBI's Internal Committee?
A. No one can file a complaint with the RBI's committee, as the aggrieved party is not an RBI employee and the incident occurred outside of official working hours.
B. Only the analyst from the financial institution has the standing to file a complaint with the RBI's committee, as she is the "aggrieved woman" who was directly subjected to the act.
C. The RBI intern can file a complaint with the committee, not as an "aggrieved woman," but as a witness to a serious act of misconduct by an RBI employee, which would be handled under general disciplinary rules, not the POSH Act.
D. The RBI's Internal Committee has the jurisdiction to hear a complaint from the analyst (as an "aggrieved woman" at an extended workplace) and must also treat a formal complaint from the intern as valid, as the incident undermines the safety and integrity of the work environment for all women.
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The doctrine used by courts to balance transparency and privacy in RTI cases is:
A. Doctrine of separation of powers
B. Doctrine of proportionality
C. Doctrine of estoppel
D. Doctrine of eclipse
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Which of the following cannot be treated as “information” under RTI Act?
A. Material in any form, including e-mails
B. Advice/opinion already on record
C. Speculation or hypothetical explanations
D. Contracts with private parties held by govt
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In case of conflict between RTI Act and DPDP Act, courts are likely to apply which
principle?
A. Later law overrides earlier law.
B. Earlier law prevails.
C. RTI is supreme in all cases
D. DPDP is superior to RTI
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If an RTI is wrongly filed with a public authority, the PIO must:
A. Reject it
B. Return to applicant
C. Transfer to correct authority within 5 days
D. Forward to CIC
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When disclosure of answer sheets is sought under RTI, courts have held that:
A. They are never disclosable due to copyright.
B. They are disclosable subject to privacy and evaluation integrity.
C. They can be disclosed only to the concerned student.
D. They are exempt from disclosure under the New Education Policy.
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While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to:
1. summon and enforce the attendance of persons.
2. compel them to give evidence on oath and produce documents or things.
3. Require discovery and inspection of documents.
A. Only 1.
B. Only 1 and 2.
C. Only 3.
D. All 1, 2 & 3
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Which conditions must be met for “third-party information” to be disclosed under
Section 11?
1. It should not harm commercial confidence.
2. Larger public interest justifies disclosure.
3. The third party is consulted and given a chance to object.
4. The applicant shows locus standi.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 & 4
C. All 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. Both 2 & 3
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Information exempted under Section 8(1)(a) in RTI Act includes:
1. Cabinet papers
2. Matters prejudicial to sovereignty and integrity of India
3. Defence strategies
4. Details of government subsidies to farmers
A. All 1, 2 & 3
B. Both 1 & 2
C. Both 2 & 3
D. None of the above
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Which types of records must be proactively disclosed by a ministry under Section 4 of
RTI Act?
1. Details of subsidies and beneficiaries
2. Minutes of cabinet discussions in progress
3. Powers and duties of officers
4. Monthly salary details of all officers
A. Both 1 & 3
B. All 1, 3 & 4
C. Both 3 & 4
D. All of the above
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An RTI applicant seeks details of RBI’s negotiations with a vendor for installation of
its Shredding and Briquetting System (SBS). Which reasoning applies?
1. Commercial confidence (Section 8(1)(d))
2. Larger public interest in transparency of pricing
3. Right to privacy of public institutions
4. Suo motu disclosure under Section 4
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 & 2
C. Both 1 & 4
D. Only 2
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An NGO asks for environmental clearance files. The ministry denies citing
“commercial confidence.” Which reasoning supports disclosure?
1. Environmental information has overriding public interest
2. RTI Act prohibits disclosure of corporate documents
3. Section 8(2) allows override of exemptions
4. Citizens’ right to healthy environment supports disclosure
A. All 1, 2 and 3
B. Both 1 & 3
C. Both 1 & 2
D. All 1, 3 and 4
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You are working as a Public Information Officer (PIO) in Central Office of Reserve
Bank of India. You have received the various RTI queries from Citizens of India. Please
choose the best reply you would provide for the following RTI queries:
I have already undertaken KYC while opening bank account with State Bank of India a
few years ago. Why is SBI still insisting for Re-KYC?
A. We do not have any information in this matter, and you are advised to approach SBI for this information as your account is maintained with them
B. The customers of the banks are required to regularly update their KYC based on their risk categorization. Therefore, SBI is correct in insisting for Re-KYC.
C. Please refer to Master Direction on Know Your Customer (KYC), dated February 25, 2016, as amended from time to time, which is available on www.rbi.org.in under the link ‘Notifications’.
D. You are advised to get your KYC records updated with Central KYC Records Registry after which Re-KYC would not be insisted by SBI.
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You are working as a Public Information Officer (PIO) in Central Office of Reserve
Bank of India. You have received the various RTI queries from Citizens of India. Please
choose the best reply you would provide for the following RTI queries:
I want to open a joint account in a bank. Whether KYC is required to be done for the
first account holder only or for all the account holders?
A. KYC is required to be done for all the account holders for opening a joint bank account.
B. Please refer to Master Direction on Know Your Customer (KYC), dated February 25, 2016, as amended from time to time, which is available on www.rbi.org.in under the link ‘Notifications’.
C. It is based on the policy of individual banks as RBI has delegated the responsibility of Customer Due Diligence to them.
D. Full KYC is required to be done for the primary account holder and E- KYC is sufficient for the other account holders.
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You are working as a Public Information Officer (PIO) in Central Office of Reserve
Bank of India. You have received the various RTI queries from Citizens of India. Please
choose the best reply you would provide for the following RTI queries:
I have taken Credit Information Report (CIR) from a Credit Information Company. It
is observed that there are many errors appearing in my CIR. Please rectify the same.
A. Complaint Redressal does not come under the purview of RTI Act. We, therefore, advise you to contact TUCIBIL/Experian/Equifax/ CRIF HIGH Mark as the case may be.
B. Your Credit information is not available with Reserve Bank of India. We, therefore, advise you to contact TUCIBIL/Experian/Equifax/ CRIF HIGH Mark as the case may be.
C. Please refer to Master Direction- Reserve Bank of India (Credit Information Reporting) Directions, 2025 dated January 6, 2025, as amended from time to time, which is available on www.rbi.org.in under the link ‘Notifications’.
D. You are advised to approach CRILC for necessary correction as it is maintaining centralised database for credit information in India.
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You are working as a Public Information Officer (PIO) in Central Office of Reserve
Bank of India. You have received the various RTI queries from Citizens of India. Please
choose the best reply you would provide for the following RTI queries:
HDFC Bank is not processing my housing loan application from last three month despite
submission of all the necessary documents. Please provide guidance regarding necessary
action which should be taken be me in the matter.
A. Please refer to RBI Master Circular on Loans and Advances – Statutory and Other Restrictions dated July 1, 2014, as amended from time to time which is available on www.rbi.org.in under the link ‘Notifications’.
B. In case of grievance against a specific bank, the applicant may lodge a complaint with the concerned bank branch. If not satisfied with their reply, you may lodge a complaint with Nodal Officers / Principal Nodal Officers at Controlling Office / Head Office of the bank branch, appointed under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, for redressal of complaint. The name and contact details of the Nodal Officers of the banks are available in their respective official website. If complaint is not redressed within one month, a complaint can be made to RBI Ombudsman.
C. We don’t have requite information available with us and you are advised to contact HDFC Bank for necessary action.
D. You are advised to contact the Office of Banking Ombudsman through Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). You can also use the toll- free number 14448 or the online portal at cms.rbi.org.in to file your complaint.
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On Monday, October 6, 2025, an applicant submits a physical RTI application at the
RBI's Bengaluru Regional Office. The application seeks a complex set of data points
related to:
•
The Bank's budget formulation process.
•
The annual budget allocation for staff training.
•
The minutes of the last three meetings of the IT Sub-Committee.
These subjects fall under the purview of three separate Central Office Departments
(CODs) in Mumbai: Corporate Strategy and Budget Department (CSBD), Human
Resource Management Department (HRMD), and Secretary's Department .
Assuming no public holidays other than standard weekends,
what is the correct
procedural flow for this request, and what is the absolute final deadline for the designated
authority to provide a consolidated reply to the applicant?
A. The Bengaluru RO will register the request online and forward it to RIAD. RIAD will identify one of the CODs as the "Nodal Department," which is then responsible for sourcing all information and sending a single, consolidated reply to the applicant by November 10, 2025.
B. The Bengaluru RO will forward the request to RIAD, which will act as the Nodal Department itself and provide a consolidated reply to the applicant by November 10, 2025.
C. The Bengaluru RO will forward the request to the RIA Division (RIAD) in HRMD, which will then task each of the three CODs to reply individually to the applicant by November 5, 2025.
D. The Bengaluru RO will directly coordinate with the three CODs and provide a consolidated reply by November 5, 2025.
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An applicant files an online RTI request on September 1, 2025. The CPIO of the
concerned Central Office Department dispatches a reply on September 29, 2025. The
applicant receives the reply via post on October 3, 2025. After reviewing the information,
the applicant feels the reply is incomplete and evasive and decides to file the first appeal.
According to the rules specified in the manual, who is the correct authority to whom the
appeal should be addressed, and
what is the last date for the applicant to file this appeal?
A. The appeal should be addressed to the Central Information Commission directly, and the last date to file is January 1, 2026 (90 days from the date of receipt of the reply).
B. The appeal should be addressed to the designated Appellate Authority, and the last date to file is November 2, 2025 (30 days from the date of receipt of the reply).
C. The appeal should be addressed to the Chief Vigilance Officer, and the last date to file is November 2, 2025 (30 days from the date of receipt of the reply).
D. The appeal should be addressed to the designated Appellate Authority, and the last date to file is October 29, 2025 (30 days from the date of the CPIO's reply).
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RIAD receives an online RTI request asking for a comparative statement on the
Bank's capital expenditure on physical security infrastructure versus cybersecurity
infrastructure over the last five years. RIAD determines that this requires data from the
Premises Department (PD), the Department of Information Technology (DIT), and the
Corporate Strategy and Budget Department (CSBD). RIAD designates CSBD as the
Nodal Department for this request. The CPIO of CSBD is aware that DIT holds the
precise data on cybersecurity spending and PD holds the data on physical security
spending.
What is the exact and sole responsibility of the CPIO of CSBD after being designated as
the Nodal Department?
A. To collect the information from DIT and PD, forward it to RIAD, which will then compile the final answer and reply to the applicant.
B. To provide the budget-related information from CSBD's own records and inform the applicant to file separate RTI requests with DIT and PD for the rest of the information.
C. To instruct the CPIOs of DIT and PD to send their respective data directly to the applicant, while CSBD provides the budgetary overview.
D. To act as the single point of contact, actively source the required information from DIT and PD, consolidate it into a single coherent reply, and send this final, consolidated reply directly to the applicant.
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Staff Regulations are NOT applicable to:
1. Staff recruited on special contracts
2. Senior executive whose salaries are determined by the Central Board.
Select the correct option:
A. Both 1 and 2 are correct
B. Only 1 is correct
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
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Chief Accounting Officer (CAO) of the Bank means:
A. CGM-1-C / CGM of CSBD CO
B. CGM-1-C / CGM of CAS Nagpur
C. CGM-1-C / CGM of DGBA CO
D. No such designation/nomenclature exist in the Bank
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According to Regulation 5 of the Staff Regulations, the Governor may delegate certain
powers to other authorities. Which specific Regulations are explicitly listed as exceptions
where the Governor cannot delegate the powers conferred upon him?
A. Regulations 32, 33, 37, and 46
B. Regulations 25, 26, 47, and 49
C. Regulations 47, 48, 50, and 55A
D. Regulations 75, 76, 84, and 85
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Under the RBI (Staff) Regulations, an employee shall be deemed to be in debt if his
total liabilities (exclusive of fully secured ones) exceed his substantive pay for:
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 18 months
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According to RBI (Staff) Regulations and Master Circular on Staff Discipline, how
should cases of unauthorized absence be treated?
A. As leave without pay, automatically regularised
B. Ignored if less than 10 days
C. Misconduct under Regulation 47, inviting disciplinary action
D. Only a caution memo, without penalty
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Which of the following is considered an act of gross moral turpitude under the RBI
guidelines, making an employee liable for dismissal?
A. Voluntary work in social organisations
B. Bigamous marriage
C. Late attendance
D. Misplacing office documents
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As per Staff Regulations, "Pay" means the amount drawn by an employee as:
1. the pay which has been sanctioned for a post held by him/her substantively or in an
non-officiating capacity, or to which he/she is entitled by reason of his/her position in a
cadre;
2. special pay and personal pay;
3. any other emoluments which may be specially classed as pay by the Governor;
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. Only 3 is correct
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both 1 and 3 are correct
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‘Special Allowance’ is granted in consideration of the:
A. arduous nature of the duties attached to the post
B. to meet expenditure necessitated by the special circumstances
C. to save from a loss of substantive pay in respect of a permanent post
D. entitlement on account of a post to which employee has been appointed substantively
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As per Staff Regulations,
1. Central Board reserves the right of changing the Regulations;
2. no new Regulation or alteration in an existing Regulation shall have any force until
passed as a resolution of the Central Board;
3. new Regulation or alteration may reduce the scale of pay of an employee on which
he/she is entitled to draw pay in a substantive capacity;
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. Both 1 and 3 are correct
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both 1 and 2 are correct
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Power to interpret and implement Staff Regulations resides with:
A. Central Board
B. CGM-1-C, HRMD CO
C. Governor
D. DG Committee
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As per Staff Regulations, 1. Governor shall prescribe from time to time the pay of
each post or group of posts; 2. Central Board shall prescribe the number of posts in each
group; 3. Governor may create a post of Senior Officer in Grade `D' or in a higher grade;
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. Both 1 and 3 are correct
C. Only 2 is correct
D. All are incorrect
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Select the correct statement:
A. Regional Director may employ temporary staff across classes subject to directions issued by the Governor or Central Board
B. Regional Director may employ temporary staff in Classes 3 & 4 subject to directions issued by the Governor or Central Board
C. Regional Director may employ temporary staff in Classes 3 & 4 subject to directions issued by the Governor
D. Regional Director may employ temporary staff across classes subject to directions issued by the Governor
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A candidate possessing special qualification has been appointed directly to Grade D.
Who can authorise the appointment of such candidate?
A. Central Board
B. CGM-1-C, HRMD CO
C. Governor
D. DG Committee
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Governor may authorise the grant of not more than _______ initial increments in the
scale of pay fixed for the grade in which the appointment is made for select cases.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. No such increments can be granted
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An employee has been granted 3 advance increments post joining the services in the
Bank.
Which of the following options may not be one of the reasons for granting such
advance increments?
A. possesses good academic qualifications
B. conducted good research projects of value to the Bank
C. was in the temporary employment of the Bank prior to his/her appointment
D. possesses special experience of value to the Bank
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A newly recruited employee has been advised to report at 10 AM on Oct 03, 2025
(Friday) in New Delhi RO. Instead, the employee reports to New Delhi RO at 3 PM on
Oct 03, 2025. In this case, "service” of the employee shall be deemed to commence from:
A. Oct 03, 2025
B. Oct 04, 2025
C. Oct 06, 2025
D. Based on the new joining date given by HRMD
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A newly recruited employee has joined the services of the Bank in Grade E. What will
be the recommended probation period for him/her?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. Between 1 to 2 years
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As per Staff Regulations, 1. The probation period for officers can be extended up to 4
years; 2. The probation period can be exempted to the extent of the period of any
continuous temporary service rendered prior to the appointment;
Select the correct
option:
A. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
B. Both 1 and 2 are correct
C. Only 1 is correct
D. Only 2 is correct
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A confirmed employee of the Bank has resigned... At the time of resignation, he had
accumulated 250 Ordinary Leave (OL). How many OL he is eligible to encash?
A. 250
B. 188
C. 63
D. 125
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An employee has availed 20 extraordinary leaves during the previous half year. How
many Ordinary Leaves (OL) will he be eligible for in the subsequent half year?
A. 13
B. 10
C. 15
D. 7
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An employee wants to encash 30 Ordinary Leaves (OL).
What is the minimum
residual balance of Ordinary Leaves to his/her credit after sanction of the encashment
applied for?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
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The grant of Special Leave to undertake a special course of study shall require the
sanction of the _______________.
A. Governor
B. CGM-1-C, HRMD
C. PCGM
D. Regional Director
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As per Staff Regulations: 1. Child adoption leave may be granted to both Female &
Male employees; 2. Adopted child must be below 6 months of age & adopted through
proper legal process; 3. Duration of leaves is up to 180 days for employees having less
than 3 surviving children;
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. All are incorrect
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both 1 & 2 are correct
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As per Staff Regulations, 1. No employee shall take an active part in politics or in any
political demonstration; 2. No employee shall become or continue to be a member or
office-bearer of, or be otherwise directly or indirectly associated with, any trade union of
the employees of the Bank;
Select the correct option:
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both 1 & 2 are correct

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