RBI Report on Trend & Progress of Banking in India – December 2025 + Monetary Policy Report – April 2026 | 80 MCQs ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 80 MCQs

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RBI Report on Trend & Progress of Banking in India – December 2025 + Monetary Policy Report – April 2026 | 80 MCQs ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 80 MCQs

Q 1 / 80
Which of the following was not a part of the key aspects which was put forth by RBI in its discussion paper published on August 21, 2025, inviting public comments as part of review of the monetary policy framework that was due in March 2026.
A. choice between headline and baseline inflation.
B. the appropriateness of the 4 per cent inflation target.
C. potential revisions to the tolerance band of +/- 2 per cent,
D. whether to maintain a specific target level or only a range for inflation.
What was the policy action undertaken by the MPC during its meeting in April 2025?
A. Policy Repo Rate was cut by 50 bps and stance changed from accommodative to neutral.
B. No change in policy rate and stance kept unchanged at neutral.
C. Policy Repo rate cut by 25 bps and stance changed from neutral to accommodative.
D. No change in policy rate and stance changed from neutral to accommodative.
GST rates were rationalised by the Govt. during September 2025 to boost domestic manufacturing and to lower the cost of living.
Which of the following action was taken by the govt to achieve this?
A. The three tier slab was Increased to four tier slab to rationalise the tax rates.
B. The slabs of 5% and 18% were replaced by 12% and 28% to ensure parity.
C. The slabs of 12% and 28% were repealed and 40% demerit rate introduced on sin goods.
D. The tax rates on luxury good were increased 5% to 28% in the revised tax structure.
The interest rate channel is central to the conduct of monetary policy under inflation targeting. The central bank influences the price of credit (interest rates) through its control over
A. the cost of funds in the market
B. the price of bank reserves
C. Money supply available in the market
D. None of the above
Headline inflation has seen significant moderation during H1:2025-26 (up to August), mainly due to?
A. Moderation in the prices of crude
B. unfavourable base effect
C. Correction in the prices of food items
D. cumulative policy repo rate cut of 75bps.
Non-tax revenue of the central government posted a high growth of 33.7 per cent during April-July 2025, mainly on account of?
A. GST Rationalisation measures
B. large surplus transfer by the RBI
C. Rollout of the New Income Tax Act 2025
D. Customs duty rationalisation
Which one of the following recommendations was not made by the IWG constituted by RBI to review the extant liquidity management framework?
A. The WACR should continue as the operating target of monetary policy.
B. 14-day Variable Rate Repo/Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRR/ VRRR) auctions to be discontinued.
C. Standalone Primary Dealers need not be given access to the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF).
D. daily minimum requirement of 90 per cent of the prescribed cash reserve ratio (CRR) reduced to 85 per cent.
The aggregate limit available to Standalone Primary Dealers under the Standing Liquidity Facility was increased from ___________ to ________ beginning April 2, 2025
A. ₹10,000 crore to ₹15,000 crore
B. ₹15,000 crore to ₹20,000 crore
C. ₹5,000 crore to ₹10,000 crore
D. None of the above
The average daily absorption by RBI under the LAF facility amounted to ₹2.31 lakh crore in H1 of 2025-26 due to
which of the following reasons?
A. Injection of Durable Liquidity by RBI
B. Increased Government spending
C. Buy/sell swaps undertaken by RBI
D. All of the above
Maintenance of higher SDF balances by the Banks with RBI indicate
A. Increased liquidity infusion by RBI
B. lower credit demand in the economy
C. surplus liquidity in the banking system
D. All of the above
The persistent hovering of the overnight market rates near the floor of the LAF corridor for a longer duration reflects?
A. transient liquidity tightness in the banking system
B. Surplus of durable liquidity in the banking system
C. short-term impact of surplus liquidity
D. None of the above
Which of the following entities were the major lenders in the tri-party repo market segment during the H1: 2025-26?
A. Commercial Banks
B. Insurance companies
C. Mutual Funds
D. Corporates
The decision of Reserve Bank to reverse risk weights on bank lending to NBFCs effective from April 1, 2025 had led to
A. The average share of NBFCs in the CP market increased in H1:2025-26 as compared to H2:2024-25
B. increased the overall credit availability to NBFCs from the banking system.
C. contraction in lending to retail loans and services segments by NBFCs.
D. None of the above
Which entity dominated the issuance in CP primary market with an average share of 48 per cent for H1:2025-26?
A. Mutual Funds
B. Housing companies
C. Corporates
D. NBFCs
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The 10-year G-sec yield softened during the beginning of the H1: 2025-26 due to the following reasons?
A. OMO sales by RBI
B. Market expectations of a Rate Hike
C. Increase in CPI inflation
D. Change of stance from ‘Neutral’ to ‘Accommodative’
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Reserve Bank undertook the following measures as part of active debt consolidation of Central Govt Debt during the H1: 2025-26?
A. OMO purchases
B. conduct of switch auctions
C. VRRR auctions
D. None of the above
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The share of the external benchmark-based lending rate linked loans in total outstanding floating rate loans of scheduled commercial banks increased to 62.9 per cent as at end-June 2025 from 61.6 per cent as at end-March 2025 indicates
which of the following?
A. increase in share of marginal cost of funds-based lending rates linked loans
B. quickened the pace of monetary policy rate transmission to lending rates.
C. increase in the loan category linked to floating rate loans
D. All of the above
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During H1:2025-26, banks have increased their spreads (charged over and above the benchmark rate), for external benchmark-based lending rate loans. The spread on fresh rupee loans was the highest for
which of the following sectors?
A. Education loans
B. Other Personal loans
C. MSME loans
D. Corporate loans
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The Government of India reviewed the interest rates on various small savings instruments, which are linked to secondary market yields on G-secs of comparable maturities and kept them unchanged. What are the likely outcomes of this decision to market rates?
A. impede transmission of policy rates to banks deposit rates
B. Market rates to increase especially in an easing cycle
C. Migration of deposits away from banks
D. All of the above
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During H1: 2025-26 the MSME segment showed a significant acceleration in growth due to improved credit flow to the MSME segment on account of?
A. revised guidelines on voluntary pledge of gold and silver jewellery as collateral for small business loans.
B. measures announced in the Union Budget helped in improving credit flow to the MSME segment.
C. revision in MSMEs classification, wherein investment limits and turnover thresholds have been raised substantially.
D. All of the above.
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The Reserve Bank's regulatory framework is primarily guided by
which of the following set of principles?
A. Transparency, Accountability, Profitability, Innovation and Stability
B. Proportionality, Consultation, Evidence-driven, Principle-based and Agility
C. Prudence, Growth, Competition, Liquidity and Profitability
D. Stability, Competition, Uniformity, Transparency and Enforcement
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Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Expected Credit Loss (ECL) framework:
1. It replaces the incurred loss approach to provisioning.
2. It is proposed to become applicable from April 1, 2027.
3. It is intended to improve transparency and credit pricing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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The Standardised Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk (SA-CCR) is proposed mainly because it:
A. Provides a more risk-sensitive measure than the Current Exposure Method.
B. Eliminates capital requirements for derivative transactions.
C. Is applicable only to foreign banks.
D. Replaces Basel III capital standards.
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With reference to Unified Lending Interface (ULI),
which of the following is NOT a feature mentioned in the report?
A. Plug-and-play architecture
B. Open API framework
C. Blockchain-based settlement of all loans
D. Access to multiple data services for lenders
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Consider the following statements:
1. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) has become a foundation for rapid financial innovation.
2. FinTechs help bridge the digital divide. RBI also conducts regular interactions with innovators and entrepreneurs through structured platforms such as FInnovate and FinConnect.
3. RBI's HaRBInger initiative encourages development of innovative financial solutions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements regarding Artificial Intelligence (AI) in the financial sector: 1. AI can improve fraud detection through continuous learning. 2. AI has overcome risks like Automation complacency and poor model explainability which can lead to systemic errors or errors in credit assessments. 3. RBI constituted the FREE-AI Committee to encourage responsible adoption of AI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Which of the following has been identified as a major downside risk to the global growth outlook?
A. Moderate growth in global manufacturing
B. Increasing government debt levels
C. Sharp increase in commodity prices due to excess demand
D. Trade policy uncertainty and protectionism
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Consider the following statements:
1. Inflation is expected to converge to target earlier in Advanced Economies (AEs) than in Emerging Market and Developing Economies (EMDEs).
2. Softer energy prices have contributed to the moderation of global inflation.
3. Inflation in AEs is projected to remain higher than in EMDEs during 2026.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Which one of the following best explains the concern regarding the increasing role of Non-Bank Financial Intermediaries (NBFIs)?
A. NBFIs are reducing competition in banking.
B. Role of NBFIs is growing in the capital market and credit intermediation.
C. Greater interconnectedness between banks and NBFIs could amplify systemic risks.
D. NBFIs have started encroaching in regulatory space.
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Which of the following emerging developments is/are identified as requiring enhanced regulatory and supervisory attention? 1. Artificial Intelligence 2. Stablecoins and crypto-assets 3. Interconnectedness between banks and non-banks
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Which one of the following best captures the overall policy message?
A. Banking regulation should focus exclusively on profitability.
B. Financial regulation should gradually be withdrawn to encourage self-regulation.
C. Policymakers should remain vigilant to evolving risks arising from macroeconomic uncertainty, technology, climate risks and interconnectedness.
D. Cryptocurrency should form part of greater discussions to optimize its utility.
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During 2025, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) reduced the policy repo rate by a cumulative:
A. 75 basis points
B. 100 basis points
C. 125 basis points
D. 150 basis points
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To improve monetary policy transmission and maintain adequate liquidity, the Reserve Bank employed
which of the following measures? 1. Open Market Operations (OMOs) 2. USD/INR Buy-Sell Swaps 3. Reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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The Framework for Formulation of Regulations, issued in May 2025, primarily seeks to:
A. Review of major contentious banking regulations.
B. Ensure a transparent, consultative and standardised regulatory process.
C. Introduce Basel IV norms.
D. Withdrawal of general statement of response to the public comments received.
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Which of the following measures was introduced under the Digital Lending Directions, 2025? 1. Lending Service Providers (LSPs) partnering with multiple REs must present loan offers in an unbiased manner. 2. Creation of a central directory of digital lending applications. 3. Encouraging blockchain-based lending for all banks.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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The FREE-AI Framework released by the Reserve Bank primarily aims to:
A. Restrict the use of Artificial Intelligence by regulated entities.
B. Promote responsible and ethical adoption of AI while balancing innovation with risk mitigation.
C. Introduction of AI in existing cybersecurity guidelines.
D. Promoting AI-based lending for all scheduled commercial banks.
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Which of the following initiatives was introduced specifically to curb cyber fraud through exclusive internet domains?
A. bank.in and .fin.in
B. .upi.in and .rtgs.in
C. rbi.in and .npci.in
D. digital.in and .pay.in
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Under the revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines effective from April 1, 2025, which one of the following changes was introduced for Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs)?
A. Overall PSL target increased to 75% of ANBC.
B. Overall PSL target revised to 60% of ANBC or CEOBSE, whichever is higher.
C. PSL obligations were made flexible.
D. Housing loans were removed from PSL.
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Consider the following statements regarding payment system initiatives: 1. Continuous cheque clearing under CTS replaces batch processing with near real-time processing. 2. Non-KYC Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) can now be linked to third-party UPI applications. 3. RBI continues to promote international expansion of UPI.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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The Reserve Bank's Master Direction on Regulation of Payment Aggregators (PAs), issued in September 2025, aims to achieve
which of the following? 1. Establish a comprehensive regulatory framework for both bank and non-bank payment aggregators. 2. Prescribe minimum capital, governance standards and fit-and-proper criteria for Payment Aggregators. 3. Require Payment Aggregators to conduct KYC and AML due diligence on merchants. Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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In an economy experiencing asymmetric global shocks, how does an intensification of an external regional conflict primarily manifest as a risk to the domestic macroeconomic outlook?
A. Through a simultaneous expansion of aggregate demand and demand-pull inflation.
B. Through a compression of the structural fiscal deficit driven by reduced government infrastructure outlays.
C. By causing an immediate appreciation of the domestic currency due to speculative safe-haven inflows.
D. Through supply-chain disruptions that strain input supplies, inhibit downstream sector growth, and exert cost-push inflation pressures.
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When global disinflation is described as proceeding at an "uneven pace" across advanced and emerging economies, it conceptually signifies that:
A. All global central banks have fully achieved synchronized price stability
B. Different economies face distinct domestic structural dynamics, wage growth paths, and energy exposures that complicate their inflation trajectories
C. Monetary policy has entirely ceased to influence aggregate demand in open economies
D. Core inflation has been universally replaced by domestic demand-pull asset bubbles
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In the context of monetary transmission, what is a primary reason commercial banks might aggressively raise term deposit rates even during a policy easing cycle?
A. To voluntarily reduce their net interest margins to meet regulatory ceilings
B. To bridge a persistent funding gap arising from sustained credit growth outpacing deposit growth
C. Because short-term uncollateralised money market rates are trading below the floor of the policy corridor
D. To satisfy a structural contraction in the systemic currency-deposit ratio
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In decomposing monetary policy transmission to bank lending rates, the term "composition effect" in the Weighted Average Lending Rate (WALR) refers to:
A. Shifts in the proportional share or mix of different loan categories within a bank's total credit portfolio
B. Direct adjustments to the underlying external benchmarks or marginal cost-based lending rates
C. Changes in the statutory corporate tax rates applicable to financial institutions
D. Variations in the absolute volume of cash reserves mandated to be kept with the central bank
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When an economy exhibits robust credit growth alongside an expansion in non-bank financing sources, it typically indicates:
A. A severe breakdown in the monetary policy transmission mechanism
B. Favourable financial conditions and diverse funding channels actively supporting real economic activity
C. An administrative mandate forcing corporates to substitute debt for equity
D. A rapid contraction in aggregate demand and private consumption
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Why are adjustments to term deposit rates generally stickier or subject to more friction during a policy easing cycle compared to overnight money market rates?
A. Overnight rates are strictly regulated by statutory decrees, while deposit rates are not
B. Retail savers automatically convert all term deposits into physical currency when policy rates soften
C. Commercial banks are prohibited from modifying deposit structures more than once a fiscal year by their ALCO.
D. Term deposits represent fixed-rate long-term contractual liabilities that reprice only upon maturity, alongside competing funding pressures
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What distinguishes a Variable Rate Repo (VRR) from a Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) from the perspective of systemic liquidity management?
A. VRR injects transient liquidity into the banking system, while VRRR absorbs excess transient liquidity
B. VRR is used to absorb durable liquidity, while VRRR is used to inject it
C. VRR alters the statutory liquidity ratio, while VRRR modifies the cash reserve ratio
D. VRR is an uncollateralised credit facility, while VRRR requires physical gold collateral
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Central banks warn that maintaining an excessive liquidity surplus over a prolonged period runs the risk of:
A. Automatically causing a severe deflationary spiral across core manufacturing sectors
B. Distorting risk perceptions, driving short-term interest rates to ultra-low levels, and potentially engendering asset price bubbles
C. Forcing commercial banks to reduce their retail lending operations
D. Eliminating the legal distinction between fiscal policy and monetary policy
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From a conceptual standpoint, how does a reduction in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) affect the banking system's money multiplier, assuming all other structural variables are constant?
A. It causes the money multiplier to structurally contract
B. It renders the public's currency-deposit ratio completely irrelevant to broad money growth
C. It permanently locks up durable liquidity, neutralizing the money multiplier's operation
D. It increases the money multiplier by releasing lendable resources and expanding the credit-creation capacity of a given monetary base
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An economy's reserve money (M0) growth can accelerate significantly even if bank deposit expansion is moderate if there is a sharp increase in which component?
A. Foreign direct investment in domestic real estate segments
B. Long-term corporate bond issuances in overseas offshore markets
C. Currency in circulation held by the public
D. Secondary market equity trading volumes
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Which combination of factors would typically cause a steepening of a sovereign bond yield curve at the longer end?
A. A sharp contraction in gross public sector borrowings coupled with aggressive central bank rate cuts
B. Increased long-term bond supply (including state-level issuances) paired with a moderation in demand from key institutional investors
C. A massive influx of foreign portfolio investment targeting long-term debt papers
D. A statutory decree forcing commercial banks to liquidate all short-term treasury bills
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In debt consolidation and sovereign liability management strategies, the primary objective of conducting "switch auctions" is to:
A. Smooth out and prolong the maturity profile of outstanding debt by exchanging short-term maturing papers for longer-term securities
B. Increase the immediate, transient cash deficit of the central government
C. Artificially depress the yields of short-term treasury bills to zero per cent
D. Prohibit institutional players from actively trading in the secondary market
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How does a widening of the "inter-state spread" of cut-off yields on state government securities conceptually reflect market dynamics?
A. It proves that all states share identical fiscal characteristics and credit risks
B. It indicates shifting investor differentiation regarding the fiscal health, supply volumes, or liquidity profiles of different states
C. It signals that the central bank has fixed the borrowing costs for all state governments
D. It is an automatic consequence of a perfectly flat sovereign yield curve
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If a central bank deliberately reduces the weighted average maturity (WAM) of fresh sovereign debt issuances, it is most likely responding to:
A. Shifting demand conditions and a desire to mitigate duration risks or hardening pressures at the longer end of the curve
B. An absolute absence of short-term liquidity needs across commercial banks
C. A statutory requirement to equalize short-term treasury bills and 30-year bond yields
D. The complete elimination of government's capital expenditure programs
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An increase in the corporate bond risk premium—defined as the spread of corporate bond yields over government securities of comparable maturities—is typically driven by:
A. A broad, across-the-board structural upgrade in sovereign credit ratings.
B. A persistent, multi-month structural surplus in daily banking system liquidity.
C. Evolving corporate earnings profiles, mixed quarterly performance, and heightened risk aversion among market investors.
D. The absolute legal prohibition of private placement mechanisms in primary issuances.
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In corporate debt markets, if the primary issuance of listed bonds in the domestic market declines due to rising costs, what structural substitution typically occurs?
A. Corporates completely halt all capital expenditure projects indefinitely
B. Corporates starts issuing equity shares to institutional investors
C. Commercial banks stop accepting term deposits from retail savers
D. Corporates shift their financing mix toward commercial bank borrowings, private placements, or alternative non-bank sources
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Why does an escalation in a major regional geopolitical conflict typically put depreciation pressure on emerging market currencies?
A. It triggers an immediate, unconstrained capital flow into riskier emerging market assets
B. It drives safe-haven capital flows toward dominant global reserve currencies and heightens broad investor risk aversion
C. It forces emerging market central banks to instantly cut their policy rates leading to flight of capital
D. It structurally eliminates the current account deficits of all advanced economies
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How do central banks typically use asymmetric fan charts, scenario analysis, and sensitivity templates in their official policy communications?
A. To guarantee exact, single-point future numeric outcomes for gross domestic product and headline inflation
B. To indicate specific commercial bank lending rates across agricultural and manufacturing sectors
C. To illustrate the balance of risks, skewness, and underlying uncertainty surrounding future growth and inflation trajectories
D. To showcase historical financial data without making any forward-looking assumptions
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On the supply side of an aggregate economy, if the services sector remains buoyant and manufacturing strengthens while agricultural activity moderates due to transient weather disruptions, the overall growth outlook is best described as:
A. Severely recessionary, indicating an immediate structural collapse
B. Driven mainly by public administration spending and transfer payments
C. Completely immune to any form of global geopolitical or trade headwinds
D. Resilient, anchored by secondary and tertiary sector momentum despite primary sector volatility
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Which macroeconomic combination is most effective at supporting private consumption and fostering resilient domestic growth during a period of global trade frictions?
A. Robust domestic credit demand, structural reforms, and supportive private consumption bolstered by tax-rate rationalizations or calibrated policy easing
B. Simultaneous fiscal expansion, aggressive monetary easing, and a rapidly widening trade deficit.
C. High domestic cost-push inflation coupled with a complete freeze on infrastructure outlays
D. Extensive capital outflows paired with a continuous widening of the banking system's funding gap
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Which statements correctly describe monetary transmission to banks' rates?
1. During tightening, the weighted average term deposit rate of SCBs rose by more than the repo-rate increase.
2. During easing, the weighted average term deposit rate declined by slightly more than the repo-rate cut up to October 2025.
3. Transmission to fresh lending rates was complete during the tightening phase.
4. Transmission to fresh lending rates during the easing phase was lower than the repo-rate cut.
5. Public sector banks showed relatively higher transmission to deposit rates than private-sector banks.
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2 and 5 only
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Which statements on maturity profile are correct?
1. Short-term deposits increased across all bank groups.
2. Short-term deposits were dominant for every bank group including payments banks.
3. Loans and advances of PSBs and PVBs were concentrated in the medium-term category.
4. PSB investments were typically long-term, while other bank groups preferred short-term exposures.
5. The short-term maturity mismatch widened during 2024-25 but remained below pre-pandemic levels.
A. 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 3 and 5 only
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Which statements about SCB profitability and provisioning are correct?
1. The interest-expense-to-interest-income ratio increased in 2024-25.
2. SCB NIM moderated to 3.1%.
3. The provision coverage ratio remained stable at 76.3% at end-March 2025.
4. PCR of PVBs was higher than PCR of PSBs at end-March 2025.
5. SFBs continued to record the widest spread.
A. 2, 3 and 5 only
B. 1, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2 and 5 only
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Which statements correctly describe capital, leverage and liquidity conditions?
1. SCBs' CRAR rose to 17.4% at end-March 2025.
2. SCBs' Tier 1 capital ratio improved to 15.5%.
3. The minimum CRAR for banks in India is 9%, or 11.5% including the capital conservation buffer.
4. SCBs' LCR and NSFR both remained above the 100% regulatory requirement.
5. SCBs' leverage ratio fell below the minimum requirement.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
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Which statements about stress and large borrowal accounts are correct?
1. Large borrowal accounts are defined as accounts with exposure of Rs. 5 crore and above.
2. Their share in total SCB advances remained broadly unchanged at 43.9% at end-March 2025.
3. For SCBs, SMA-0, SMA-2 and NPA ratios declined for both overall and large borrowal accounts.
4. SMA-1 ratio increased for SCBs, driven by PSBs.
5. Restructured standard advances ratio increased sharply in 2024-25.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which fraud-related statements are correct?
1. By reporting date, the number of frauds declined but the amount involved increased in 2024-25.
2. The rise in amount was partly linked to 122 earlier cases reported afresh after re-examination.
3. By occurrence date, card/internet frauds had the largest share in number of cases.
4. By occurrence date, advances-related frauds had the largest share in amount involved.
5. PVBs had the largest share of amount involved in reported frauds.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which statements about sectoral composition and industrial credit are correct?
1. The shares of services and personal loans in total bank credit increased.
2. The shares of agriculture and industry in total bank credit declined.
3. Medium industries witnessed acceleration in credit growth.
4. Micro and small industries and large industries recorded moderation in credit growth.
5. Personal loans ceased to be a significant part of bank credit.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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In a risk-review meeting, a supervisor says: 'Asset quality improved, but fraud amount rose; therefore the banking sector's credit risk worsened.' Which is the best analytical response? Co-operative Banks
A. Accept fully; reported fraud amount and asset quality are the same risk measure.
B. Reject fully; frauds are irrelevant to banking-sector risk.
C. Qualify the statement: GNPA/NNPA and slippages improved, while reported fraud amount rose partly due to re-examined historical cases; the two indicators should not be collapsed into one conclusion.
D. Accept only for foreign banks because they dominated reported fraud amount.
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A salary-earners' UCB has deposits above Rs. 10,000 crore. Under the four-tier framework, how is it classified?
A. Tier 4, because deposits exceed Rs. 10,000 crore.
B. Tier 3, because it is not a commercial bank.
C. Tier 1, because all salary-earners' UCBs are Tier 1 irrespective of deposit size.
D. It falls outside the four-tier framework.
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Which statements on UCB profitability and soundness are correct?
1. UCB net profit after tax grew by 14.2% in 2024-25.
2. Scheduled UCBs' operating profits contracted, while non-scheduled UCBs' operating profits increased.
3. UCB NIM moderated because interest expenditure grew faster than interest income.
4. UCB CRAR improved to 18.0%.
5. UCB GNPA ratio worsened to double digits at end-March 2025.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which statement correctly describes large borrowal accounts in UCBs?
A. They were irrelevant to UCB asset quality.
B. Their share in total UCB lending declined to 23.4%, but they still contributed about one-third of total UCB GNPAs.
C. They were more important for non-scheduled UCBs than scheduled UCBs.
D. They represented more than 80% of all UCB lending.
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Which statements correctly compare RCCs, UCBs, StCBs and DCCBs?
1. RCCs rely much more on borrowings than UCBs.
2. UCBs rely predominantly on deposits.
3. StCBs had a credit-deposit ratio above 100% at end-March 2025.
4. DCCBs had a higher CASA share than StCBs.
5. DCCBs had a lower GNPA ratio than StCBs.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
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Which rural co-operative technology/governance developments are correctly stated?
1. RBI accorded regulatory approval for a shared service entity for rural co-operative banks in April 2025.
2. Sahakar Sarathi Private Limited is being established to provide centralised technological, operational and support services.
3. The RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme was extended to StCBs and DCCBs from November 1, 2025.
4. PACS computerisation aims to onboard nearly 80,000 PACS onto a unified ERP platform.
5. PACS are being phased out as rural service institutions.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which statements on long-term rural credit co-operatives are correct?
1. SCARDBs primarily borrow from NABARD.
2. PCARDBs receive financial assistance from SCARDBs.
3. SCARDBs' net profit turned negative during 2023-24.
4. SCARDB GNPA ratio increased to 38.3% at end-March 2024.
5. PCARDB GNPA ratio worsened from 39.7% to above 40%.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which entities are placed in the base layer under the framework described?
1. NBFC-Account Aggregator
2. NBFC-P2P
3. NBFC-Non-Operative Financial Holding Company
4. Standalone Primary Dealer
5. NBFC-Infrastructure Debt Fund
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
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Which ownership-pattern statements are correct?
1. Government-owned NBFCs held 36.5% of NBFC-sector assets.
2. Government-owned NBFCs held 51.5% of NBFC-ML assets.
3. All NBFC-UL assets belonged to non-government companies.
4. Private limited companies had a 33.0% asset share in the NBFC sector.
5. NBFC-UL entities that are not already listed must get listed within three years.
A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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Which statements about NBFC funding and balance-sheet expansion are correct?
1. NBFC balance sheets maintained double-digit expansion at end-March 2025.
2. Growth in borrowings from banks moderated, especially for NBFC-ML.
3. NBFCs compensated by increasing reliance on market borrowings.
4. Risk weights on SCB lending to NBFCs, increased in November 2023, were restored from April 1, 2025.
5. Bank borrowings ceased to be significant for NBFCs.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which asset-quality statements about NBFCs are correct?
1. The NBFC-sector GNPA ratio declined to 2.9% at end-March 2025.
2. The NBFC-sector NNPA ratio declined to 1.0%.
3. NBFC-MFI GNPA ratio increased to 4.1%.
4. NBFC-ML improved in both GNPA and NNPA ratios.
5. NBFCs needed to remain vigilant about rising SMA-1 and SMA-2 categories.
A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
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Which statements about NBFC capital and sensitive-sector exposures are correct?
1. NBFC-sector CRAR was 25.9% at end-March 2025, above the 15% regulatory prescription.
2. NBFC-MFIs raised their CRAR as a precautionary measure.
3. Sensitive-sector exposure was 25% of NBFCs' total assets.
4. Real estate exposure accounted for 26.8% of total sensitive-sector exposure.
5. Capital-market exposure increased because internal limits under SBR were removed.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which HFC statements are correct?
1. RBI took over regulation of HFCs from NHB in August 2019, while HFCs are supervised by NHB.
2. Two HFCs converted into NBFC-IFC and NBFC-ICC in 2024-25.
3. HFCs' share in total housing-sector credit declined to 18.8% at end-March 2025.
4. Housing loans accounted for 73.8% of credit extended by HFCs.
5. All 91 HFCs were permitted to accept public deposits.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

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