Annual Report & Financial Stability Report ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 80 MCQs

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Annual Report & Financial Stability Report ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 80 MCQs

Q 1 / 80
India’s macroeconomic fundamentals remain strong as compared to many of its peers during the ongoing West Asia crisis and in comparison, to previous crisis episodes due to.
1. A strong bank and non-bank balance sheets of the financial intermediaries.
2. The potential for external shocks to generate financial stress remain elevated.
3. adequate capital and liquidity buffers in the banking system
Which of the above statements are strongly corelated?
A. 1 & 3
B. 1 & 2
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 2 & 3
The rollover risks have increased amid rising global debt levels as the governments have started
A. reduced their refinancing requirements
B. elongation of the maturity profile of the debt
C. appetite for dollar denominated debt remained strong
D. None of the above
Questions are being raised about the safe asset status of government bonds.
Which of the following, as per the FSR 2026, is indicative of the above statement?
A. Softening of the yields
B. fall in volatility in the bond markets
C. increase in convenience yield
D. None of the above
During periods of market stress, fragilities in the sovereign bond markets could transmit faster and may lead to broader market spillovers on account of?
A. increased sovereign- Bank nexus
B. increased participation of leveraged hedge funds
C. increase arbitrage trades involving sovereign bonds
D. All of the above
As per the FSR 2026, NBFIs pose significant risk to the financial stability globally. The major reason identified by the report are
1. Strong interlinkages between banks and non-banks
2. highly leveraged and quantitative investment strategies
3. use of repo funding and smaller margins for undertaking trades
4. Lightly regulated and opaque with no access to central bank liquidity facilities
A. None of the above
B. 1, 2 & 3 above
C. 1, & 4 above
D. All of the above
The share of short-term debt on residual maturity basis stood at what percentage of foreign exchange reserves as at the end of March 2026?
A. 49.2%
B. 47.3%
C. 48.9%
D. 46.7%
The higher energy prices and other commodities due to the geopolitical issues would adversely impact the fiscal deficit due to the limited pass-through of oil price increases, excise duty cuts and higher outgo on account of fuel subsidies and would lead to the hardening of Bond yields. However, the pressure on yields are expected to be eased due to fall in the energy prices along with?
A. Increased spending by the Govt.
B. Higher FDI inflows
C. revival of FPI debt inflows
D. fiscal consolidation by the Govt.
The INR has been under depreciation over the last several months due to elevated trade uncertainty, weakening of capital flows and deteriorating investor sentiments. Meanwhile the depreciation of the INR was amplified with the increased hedging demand from?
A. Bank’s
B. Importers
C. Exporters
D. NBFIs
RBI took
which of the following measures to arrest the excessive volatility in the exchange rate of INR caused by the onshore-offshore basis arbitrage trades by the market participants leading to continued depreciation of INR?
A. Curbed Banks from taking speculative positions in off-shore markets
B. limited the Net Open positions in INR in the offshore deliverable markets
C. both (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Flows to passive funds witnessed a sharp increase during H2:2025-26 with cumulative inflows rising by 109% vis-a-viz H1:2025-26 due to increased investments in?
A. Index Funds
B. Gold ETFs
C. Bond ETFs
D. Leveraged ETFs
The banking system resilience in India remains intact, however funding is emerging as a key challenge as the Bank’s liability profile is shifting from low cost _________ deposits to higher cost _______ deposits pushing up the marginal cost of funds.
A. CDs, CPs
B. CASA, CDs
C. CDs, fixed
D. Fixed, CASA
A Special Mention account (SMA) is defined as, for loans with revolving facilities (Cash Credits /overdraft), if the outstanding balance remain continuously more than the sanctioned limits or drawing power whichever is lower for a period of 61-90 days.
A. SMA-1
B. SMA-0
C. SMA-3
D. SMA-2
Name the non-interest benefit which a depositor gets from holding money in the current and savings account (CASA) with bank even if the deposit interest rates are low?
A. Credit impulse
B. Convenience yield
C. Deposit franchise
D. Run-offs
As per the Banking Stability indicator (BSI) the overall risk in the banking sector has reduced as on March 2026, supported by improvements in all dimensions except__________?
A. Efficiency
B. Profitability
C. Asset Quality
D. Liquidity
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The Overall risk in the NBFC sector during 2025-26 as indicated by the Non-Banking Stability Indicator (NBSI) saw a moderate increase, reflecting a slight weakening in ________ and ________ metrics?
A. Asset quality and Liquidity
B. Profitability and Efficiency
C. Soundness and Liquidity
D. Liquidity and profitability
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Which of the following statements are correct
1. The HTM portfolio for both Public sector Banks (PSBs) and Private sector banks (PVBs) increased their holding of State Govt. securities (SGS) while reducing their holding of Central Govt. securities (G.sec).
2. The Foreign banks increased their share of other securities in their HTM portfolio.
3. In the quarter ending March 2026 both G-sec and SGS holdings in the HTM book exhibited unrealised gains
A. All the above
B. 1 & 2
C. 2 & 3
D. 1 & 3
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Which of the following statements are true?
1. The aggregate credit growth of NBFCs (Upper and Middle Layer) decelerated y-o-y in March 2026.
2. NBFC credit growth accelerated in industry and services sector while it slowed down in agriculture and retail loan segment.
3. Credit growth of NBFC-MFIs turned positive and accelerated to 14.5% y-o-y in March 2026.
4. Dependence on bank borrowings decreased for both NBFC-Upper Layer & NBFC- Middle Layer in March 2026 compared to the previous year.
A. None of the above
B. 1, 2 & 4
C. 1 & 3
D. 2, 3 & 4
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Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. Inter-bank exposures as a percentage of the total assets of the banking system edged up over the last two quarters of 2025-26
2. The increase was primarily due to fund-based exposures while non-fund based exposures remained stable.
3. Private sector banks continue to dominate the inter-bank market accounting for 57.8% of the total inter-bank exposures.
A. only 3
B. 1 & 3
C. only 1
D. all the above
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The Reserve bank has comprehensively reviewed and amended the instructions of Investment Fluctuation Reserve (IFR) for various bank categories. With these amendments RBI has discontinued the IFR requirements for which category of Banks?
A. Scheduled commercial Banks
B. Payment banks
C. Small Finance Banks
D. NBFCs
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RBI had issued instructions on Unique Transaction Identifier (UTI) to improve the quality and accuracy of financial data and strengthen systemic risk monitoring through entry-level and transaction level traceability and monitoring of which data.
A. Exchange Traded Currency Futures
B. Non-Deliverable forwards transactions
C. OTC derivatives transactions
D. FX-Retail transactions
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A bank provides leverage, clearing, market-making and underwriting services to several NBFIs. During market stress, it responds by raising margin calls, cutting loans and selling assets. Which risk transmission mechanism is best reflected here?
A. The bank’s action reduces its own short-term risk but may amplify stress across the financial system.
B. The bank’s action permanently eliminates all NBFI-related systemic risk.
C. Such action affects only the bank’s profitability and has no financial stability implications.
D. The risk is limited to operational risk and excludes credit, counterparty, liquidity and market risks.
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Which of the following correctly explain why IOSCO revised its liquidity risk management recommendations for open-ended funds?
1. Some funds offered daily redemption despite holding illiquid assets.
2. Such structures can create first-mover advantage for redeeming investors.
3. Liquidity mismatch may generate dilution effects and systemic spillovers.
4. The recommendations aim to align redemption terms with actual asset liquidity.
5. The objective was to prohibit all open-ended funds from offering redemptions.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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Which of the following correctly reflect the RBI’s directions on investment in AIFs by regulated entities?
1. An individual RE may not invest more than 10 per cent of the corpus of an AIF scheme.
2. Collective investment by all REs is capped at 20 per cent of the corpus of an AIF scheme.
3. The directions aim to prevent misuse of AIF structures for evergreening or circumvention of exposure norms.
4. Mandatory 100 per cent provisioning applies in specified cases involving downstream investment in debtor companies.
5. REs are encouraged to use AIF structures to bypass exposure norms.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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Which of the following were identified as vulnerabilities in government bond-backed repo markets?
1. Leverage build-up through repo-funded positions
2. Demand-supply imbalances during asset-liability mismatches
3. High concentration in the repo market
4. Complete absence of any role in sovereign bond market liquidity
5. Persistent need to preserve core market-functioning role while addressing vulnerabilities
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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Which elements correctly reflect the international regulatory shift on AI supervision described in the report?
1. Movement from high-level AI principles towards operational supervisory practices
2. Focus on governance and risk management
3. Focus on third-party and outsourcing risk management
4. Complete withdrawal of disclosure and recordkeeping requirements for AI systems
5. Concern over concentration risk arising from common AI providers
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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Which statements correctly reflect the Risk-Based Premium Framework introduced by DICGC?
1. It allows differential premium rates across categories of insured banks.
2. It links premia more closely with the underlying risk profile of insured institutions.
3. It incorporates a vintage discount mechanism for banks with sustained contribution to the DIF without claim payouts.
4. It ensures all banks permanently pay the same uniform premium of 12 paise per β‚Ή100 of assessable deposits.
5. Better-managed banks may become eligible for lower premium rates.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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A bank argues that all swap positions arising from FCNR(B), ECB and OFCB facilities should automatically be counted against its NOP-INR limit. Which response is most aligned with the chapter?
A. Correct; no exclusions are permitted under any circumstances.
B. Incorrect; specified swap positions and certain hedged transactions arising under these facilities were permitted to be excluded subject to compliance with the relevant directions.
C. Correct; the NOP-INR framework was withdrawn entirely after June 2026.
D. Incorrect; NOP-INR limits apply only to co-operative banks.
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The new Directions on asset classification, provisioning and income recognition are conceptually important because they:
A. retain the existing IRACP norms without any change.
B. introduce a forward-looking ECL framework with a three-stage provisioning approach and Effective Interest Rate based income recognition.
C. remove provisioning requirements for all commercial banks.
D. apply only to foreign banks and payment banks.
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Which changes are part of the revised Standardised Approach framework for capital charge for credit risk?
1. More granular and risk-sensitive risk-weighting of credit exposures
2. External credit rating-based approach for claims on counterparty banks
3. Greater coverage of unrated MSMEs for relatively lower risk-weight
4. Inclusion of transactors under the regulatory retail category
5. Complete removal of credit conversion factors for off-balance sheet exposures
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
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Which option most accurately captures the chapter’s assessment of CIRP outcomes?
A. Most cases ended only in liquidation, with no rescue outcomes.
B. The Code has rescued corporate debtors through resolution plans, appeal/review/settlement and withdrawal, while some cases have been referred for liquidation.
C. Resolution plans yielded no creditor realisation against liquidation value.
D. CIRP applies only to financial service providers and not corporate debtors generally.
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During the 2025-26 period, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) transitioned the policy stance from neutral to accommodative and back to neutral. What was the primary macroeconomic driver behind this specific sequence of adjustments?
A. The introduction of the EBLR regime.
B. The persistence of food price inflation.
C. Volatility in the global crude oil market.
D. Dynamics of growth-inflation balance.
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Based on the recent review of the Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework, consider the following statements:
1. A significant majority of stakeholders supported retaining the 4 per cent inflation target.
2. There was a consensus to replace Headline CPI with Core CPI as the formal nominal anchor.
3. Nearly one-third of respondents favoured a narrower tolerance band to build policy credibility.
Which of the above are correct?
A. Only 2 and 3 are correct.
B. Only 1 and 3 are correct.
C. Only 1 and 2 are correct.
D. All statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
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The Reserve Bank's liquidity management framework was recently adjusted to account for structural changes in the financial system.
Which of the following best describes the current role of 14-day variable rate repo (VRR) auctions?
A. Primary tool for durable liquidity injection.
B. Discontinued as main liquidity operations tool.
C. Used exclusively for managing capital flows.
D. Replaced by the standing deposit facility.
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Which of the following factors contributed to the 'Goldilocks' period observed in the Indian economy during Q2:2025-26?
1. Real GDP growth reaching a six-quarter high.
2. Headline inflation falling below the lower tolerance threshold.
3. Resolution of the US government shutdown and trade deal progress.
4. A sharp decrease in the policy repo rate to enhance demand.
Select the correct combination:
A. Only 1 and 4 are correct.
B. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
C. Only 2 and 3 are correct.
D. Only 1 and 2 are correct.
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How does the transmission of monetary policy typically differ between Private Sector Banks (PVBs) and Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in the current Easing Cycle?
A. Transmission is faster in PVBs.
B. Transmission is slower in PVBs.
C. Both bank groups show identical speeds.
D. Foreign banks show the slowest speed.
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Regarding the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2025-30,
identify the correct components of the 'Panch-Jyoti' objectives:
1. Leveraging financial education for discipline.
2. Adopting a gender-sensitive approach for women-led inclusion.
3. Mandatory shifting of all rural accounts to digital-only mode.
4. Strengthening customer protection and grievance redressal.
Select the correct option:
A. All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
C. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
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The FI-Index improved to 67.0 in March 2025. Which sub-index has historically shown negative contribution during specific periods due to external disruptions, such as reduced literacy activities?
A. FI-Digital sub-index.
B. FI-Access sub-index.
C. FI-Quality sub-index.
D. FI-Usage sub-index.
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A significant policy change was made to the collateral requirements for Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) to improve credit flow.
What is the new limit for collateral-free loans effective from April 1, 2026?
A. 20 lakh.
B. 50 lakh.
C. 25 lakh.
D. 15 lakh.
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Consider the following statements regarding the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) trends in 2025-26:
1. The number of operative KCCs witnessed a double-digit percentage decline.
2. Total outstanding KCC loans increased due to higher animal husbandry demand.
3. The decline in operative accounts was partly due to bank reclassification of exposures.
Which of the above are correct?
A. All statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. Only 1 and 2 are correct.
C. Only 2 and 3 are correct.
D. Only 1 and 3 are correct.
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The SORR benchmark, authorized in July 2025, is designed to reflect conditions in which segment of the money market?
A. The secured money market segments.
B. The long-term corporate bond market.
C. The inter-bank term deposit market.
D. The uncollateralized call money market.
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Regarding the investment regime for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs),
which of the following regulatory changes were implemented in 2025-26?
1. Concentration limits for corporate debt securities were withdrawn.
2. FPIs are now prohibited from investing in Treasury Bills.
3. VRR investments will be reckoned under the general FPI limit from April 2026.
4. Surplus balances in Vostro accounts can now be invested in G-Secs.
Select the correct combination:
A. All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
C. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
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What is the primary objective of the newly introduced Unique Transaction Identifier (UTI) in the OTC derivative markets?
A. To mandate physical settlement of contracts.
B. To reduce the tax burden on derivatives.
C. To ensure greater transparency in pricing.
D. To align with global reporting standards.
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The 'Aapki Poonji, Aapka Adhikar' campaign was launched to address which specific issue in the banking sector?
A. Promoting the use of UPI in rural areas.
B. Settlement of unclaimed deposits.
C. Reducing the cost of external borrowings.
D. High rates of non-performing assets.
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Consider the following statements about the revised FEM (Guarantees) Regulations 2026:
1. It enables guarantees issued by non-resident entities under the automatic route.
2. The underlying transaction must not be prohibited under FEMA 1999.
3. Mandatory monthly reporting of all invoked guarantees has been introduced.
Which of the above are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2 are correct.
B. All statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
C. Only 1 and 3 are correct.
D. Only 2 and 3 are correct.
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Which benchmark serves as the operating target of monetary policy in India, and how did it perform relative to the policy repo rate in 2025-26?
A. T-Bill 91-day yield; remained highly volatile.
B. MSF rate; remained 10 bps above the repo rate.
C. SDF rate; remained at the floor of the corridor.
D. WACR; remained 7 bps below the repo rate.
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Evaluate these statements regarding Priority Sector Lending (PSL) achievement in 2025-26:
1. SCBs as a whole achieved a PSL percentage of 45.0 per cent.
2. Small Finance Banks (SFBs) had the highest achievement at 78.8 per cent.
3. Every bank group failed to reach the prescribed 40 per cent individual target.
4. Private Sector Banks achieved a higher PSL percentage than Public Sector Banks.
Which combination is correct?
A. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
C. All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
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What is the significance of the 'Just-in-Time' fund release system mentioned in the context of the Reserve Bank's liquidity operations?
A. It eliminates the need for any cash reserves.
B. It is exclusively used for foreign exchange swaps.
C. It requires higher precautionary liquidity for banks.
D. It represents a structural change in fund flow.
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In the period 2025-26, the Reserve Bank intervened in the foreign exchange market to manage the NOP-INR position.
What is the newly mandated limit for Authorised Dealers at the end of each business day?
A. USD 500 million.
B. USD 250 million.
C. USD 100 million.
D. USD 50 million.
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Consider the strategic goals for 2026-27.
Which of the following are part of the Department of Monetary Policy's agenda?
1. Estimating the natural real rate of interest.
2. Reviewing and improving GDP growth forecasting.
3. Mandatory conversion of all PSU loans to EBLR.
4. Reviewing the quarterly projection model.
Select the correct combination:
A. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
C. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D. All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
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The introduction of the External Benchmark-based Lending Rate (EBLR) has been a significant reform. Which sector showed the highest share of EBLR-linked loans as of December 2025?
A. Public Sector Banks.
B. Small Finance Banks.
C. Regional Rural Banks.
D. Private Sector Banks.
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Regarding the implementation of the EDDPE programme,
what is the milestone achieved as of March 31, 2026?
A. Complete digitization of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
B. 50 per cent coverage across all states and UTs.
C. 100 per cent coverage in 50 per cent of districts.
D. 100 per cent coverage in more than 80 per cent of districts.
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Which of the following describes the current status of the FX-Retail platform as of October 2025?
1. It has been linked with Bharat Connect.
2. Sole proprietorships can facilitate purchases of US Dollars.
3. It also allows individuals to sell British Pounds now.
4. It was initially facilitating purchases of US Dollars against the Rupee.
Select the correct combination:
A. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
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The Reserve Bank's durable liquidity augmenting measures in 2025-26 included a variety of tools. Which tool provided the largest single injection of liquidity (Rs. 2.5 lakh crore)?
A. Term VRR Auctions.
B. Long-term Forex Swaps.
C. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Cuts.
D. Open Market Operations (OMO) Purchases.
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Regarding the Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) review,
what is the primary goal of the upcoming changes for 2026-27?
A. To enhance effectiveness in deepening financial inclusion.
B. To increase the number of districts covered.
C. To divide the lead bank responsibilities to Private Sector Banks.
D. To increase the credit disbursal in backward districts.
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Consider these statements about the MPC's inflation projections for 2025-26:
1. Projections were consistently revised upwards due to food inflation spikes.
2. Normal monsoon was a key assumption in the early projections.
3. By October 2025, headline inflation was revised down to 2.6 per cent.
4. Core inflation was stable around 4 per cent despite gold price volatility.
Which of the above are correct?
A. Only 1 and 4 are correct.
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
D. All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
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A pilot project for certificates of deposit (CDs) has commenced using
which of the following technological combinations?
A. Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT) and Wholesale CBDC.
B. Cloud computing and private blockchains.
C. Artificial Intelligence and real-time gross settlement.
D. Mobile-only platforms and retail CBDC.
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What prompted the MPC to frontload a 50-bps rate cut in June 2025, according to the report?
A. A sudden spike in unemployment rates.
B. The failure of the US trade deal.
C. Continuous decline in headline inflation creating space for easing.
D. A mandate from the Central Government to reduce rates.
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The steepening of the G-sec yield curve in 2025-26 β€” short-term yields softening while long-term yields hardened β€” is best explained by which combination?
1. Monetary easing and surplus systemic liquidity pulling down the shorter end
2. Global uncertainty, receding expectations of further rate cuts, and demand-supply mismatches pushing up the longer end
3. A parallel downward shift across the entire curve driven uniformly by the repo rate cuts
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
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The Reserve Bank's revised framework for Foreign Exchange operations in 2025-26 emphasized
which of the following goals?
A. Maintaining orderly market conditions and curbing volatility.
B. Fixing the exchange rate at a specific level.
C. Using exchange rate as the primary tool for inflation control.
D. Mandating a ban on offshore derivatives.
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Encouraging states to adopt a "Benchmark Issuance Strategy" for market borrowings is best understood as addressing which specific market friction?
A. Fragmented, unpredictable issuance across too many tenors, which limits liquidity and price discovery for any single security.
B. Excessive reliance on treasury bills relative to dated securities for meeting state cash needs.
C. The absence of any pre-announced calendar for state government borrowings
D. A shortage of primary dealers willing to underwrite state government auctions
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What are the components of the Bank’s Economic Capital?
A. Capital + Contingency Fund + Asset Development Fund
B. Available Realized Equity (ARE) + Unrealized Revaluation Balances
C. Reserve Fund + Contingency Fund + Unrealized Revaluation Balances
D. Capital + Reserve Fund + Contingency Fund + Asset Development Fund
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Forward contracts entered into by the Reserve Bank are revalued on a _____basis.
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Quarterly
D. Half-yearly
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The size of the Bank’s Balance Sheet for a particular Financial Year is β‚Ή90,00,000 crore. As per the guidelines on ECF, it was decided to keep the Available Realized Equity (ARE) at upper threshold of 6.5% of the Balance Sheet size. The Unrealized Revaluation Balance for the year stood at β‚Ή15,00,000 crore. If Capital is β‚Ή5 crore, Reserve Fund is β‚Ή6500 crore and Asset Development Fund (ADF) is β‚Ή22,000 crore, find the amount of Contingency Fund.
A. β‚Ή5,56,495 crore
B. β‚Ή4,45,969 crore
C. β‚Ή6,11,112 crore
D. β‚Ή5,39,675 crore
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Bank’s Foreign Currency Assets undergoes periodic revaluation, and resultant unrealized gains are parked in the Balance Sheet. Which instruments are exception to this policy?
A. Foreign T-bills
B. Foreign Securities
C. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
D. None of the above
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Consider the following statements regarding household financial savings in 2024-25:
1. Net household financial saving increased compared to the previous year.
2. Gross household financial saving increased over the previous year.
3. Household financial liabilities declined significantly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Which of the following best reflects the relationship between government capital expenditure and private investment, as discussed in the report?
A. Government capital expenditure crowded out private investment.
B. Government capital expenditure had no impact on private investment.
C. Government capital expenditure played a counter-cyclical role and helped crowd in private investment.
D. Private investment declined because of higher public investment.
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Which sector recorded the highest real GVA growth during 2025-26?
A. Agriculture, Livestock, Forestry and Fishing
B. Industry
C. Services
D. Manufacturing
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Which of the following best explains the moderation in headline inflation during 2025-26?
A. Increase in fuel prices throughout the year
B. Deflation in food prices coupled with a favourable base effect
C. Sharp appreciation of the rupee alone
D. Higher inflation in services offset by lower manufacturing prices
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Consider the following statements regarding Payments Vision 2028:
1. It outlines the roadmap for digital payments up to December 2028.
2. It explores the introduction of electronic cheques.
3. It proposes a shared responsibility framework involving only the issuing bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Which of the following best explains the objective of the proposed Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP)?
A. To facilitate real-time identification of suspicious transactions using advanced technologies. [Correct Answer]
B. To replace UPI as India's primary retail payment system.
C. To enable settlement of cross-border transactions in foreign currencies.
D. To issue digital payment licences to payment aggregators.
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During 2025-26, UPI accounted for approximately what share of total retail payment transactions (by volume)?
A. 52%
B. 67%
C. 75%
D. Nearly 86%
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Which of the following is the primary purpose of introducing the '.bank.in' domain?
A. To facilitate cross-border remittances.
B. To improve interoperability among payment systems.
C. To reduce phishing and strengthen trust in digital banking.
D. To strengthen core banking portals.
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Consider the following statements about India's international payment initiatives:
1. UPI QR-code acceptance is operational in France and the UAE.
2. Deployment of UPI-like infrastructure is underway in Namibia and Peru.
3. RuPay stack deployment has been completed in Singapore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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The Reserve Bank proposes introducing a 'Kill Switch' for digital payments primarily to:
A. Permanently deactivate bank accounts.
B. Suspend UPI services during cyberattacks.
C. Disable international card transactions only.
D. Block all debits from an account instantly to combat fraud.
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RBI launched its official podcast series 'RBI Talks: From Paisa to Policy' with the inaugural episode on:
A. Digital Rupee
B. Financial Literacy Week
C. Demystifying Know Your Customer (KYC)
D. Cyber Security Awareness
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With reference to RBI's international engagements during 2025-26, consider the following statements:
1. India assumed the BRICS Chair from January 1, 2026.
2. RBI signed Memoranda of Understanding with Banque de France and the European Central Bank.
3. RBI discontinued the currency swap arrangement for SAARC countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Phase-I of continuous clearing in the Cheque Truncation System (CTS), implemented from October 4, 2025, reduced the settlement period for Government cheques from:
A. T+1 to Same Day
B. T+2 to T+1
C. Same Day to Instant
D. T+3 to T+1
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The Department of Economic and Policy Research (DEPR) undertook approximately how many research projects during 2025-26?
A. 75
B. 90
C. 102
D. 120
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RBI's Department of Statistics and Information Management (DSIM) used Large Language Models (LLMs) primarily to:
A. Replace all statistical surveys
B. Predict monetary policy decisions automatically
C. Analyse complaint data and unstructured social media feedback for insights
D. Conduct supervisory analysis of banks
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Consider the following initiatives undertaken by the Legal Department during 2025-26:
1. Preparation of a research paper on leveraging AI for enhancing legal functions.
2. Organisation of training programmes on Regulation Drafting in collaboration with leading law universities.
3. Publication of amendments to the RBI Act, 1934.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

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