Financial Stability Report December 2025 ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 40 MCQs

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Financial Stability Report December 2025 ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 40 MCQs

Q 1 / 40
Which of the following is not true with regards to Indian rupee movement in 2025?
A. Indian Rupee has depreciated against US Dollar while its Asian peers have appreciated against US Dollar.
B. The trade weighted real effective exchange rate index (40-currency basket) for India has trended lower, falling below 100 level, signalling overvaluation of Indian Rupee as against its trade partners.
C. The exchange market pressure index shows that the central bank intervention has helped in cushioning the net external pressure on Indian Rupee.
D. A positive risk reversal indicates a bearish outlook on the Indian rupee
Which of the following contributed to the easing of domestic financial conditions in July- November 2025?
1. Gains in equity markets
2. Depreciation of Indian Rupee
3. Rise in government bond yields
4. Decrease in corporate bond spreads
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Compared to FSR Dec-24,
which of the following indices have risen?
A. Trade Policy Uncertainty and Economic Policy Uncertainty
B. Geopolitical Risk and MOVE Index
C. Economic Policy Uncertainty and Geopolitical Risk
D. CBOE VIX Index and MOVE Index
Which of the following is correct regarding Fintech firms?
1. More than half of personal loans are extended to borrowers under 35 years of age.
2. Within personal loans, impairment in small ticket loans were relatively higher compared to other NBFCs.
3. Personal loans account for more than half of their outstanding consumer segment loan portfolio.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
How do Stablecoins differ from unbacked crypto assets?
A. Stablecoins generate high speculative returns
B. Stablecoins aim to replace central bank money
C. Stablecoins are designed to maintain a stable value
D. Stablecoins will eliminate all financial intermediaries
Which of the following are the risks associated with stablecoins?
1. They can lead to high inflation and exchange rate fluctuations in sending and receiving economies.
2. They have the potential to become a key medium for on-chain clearing and settlement with expansion in tokenisation of securities and real-world assets.
3. Their rapid growth could adversely affect credit intermediation.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3
Regarding India’s fiscal sector, consider the following statements.
1. The supply of Central Government Securities (G-Sec) and State Government Securities (SGS) has risen considerably.
2. The weighted-average maturity (WAM) of outstanding debt and annual issuances of both central and state government debt has risen.
3. The demand for long-term sovereign debt among the largest investors, viz., insurance companies and pension funds has risen.
Which of the above statements are correct? (Page no. – 7, Para no. – 1.14 and 1.15)
A. Only 2
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following is not a component of committed expenditure of states?
A. Administrative expenses
B. Interest payments
C. Salaries
D. Pensions
With reference to India’s capital and financial account,
select the incorrect option
A. Net foreign direct investment (FDI) flows have improved in H1:2025-26.
B. Net portfolio investments have declined.
C. External commercial borrowings and non-resident deposits have moderated compared to last year.
D. Overall, financial account turned negative in H1:2025-26.
Despite steady foreign investor outflows, and persistent global economic uncertainty, the Indian equity market has displayed resilience. In this context,
which of the following statements is correct:
A. There has been increased co-movement between US equity markets and Indian equity markets in recent period.
B. Indian equity markets displayed higher volatility compared to US equity markets in calendar year 2025
C. Between 2021-22 and 2025-26, domestic institutional investor flows have increased at an average of ~0.7 per cent per year
D. Over 5-year horizon, Indian equity markets have performed better than China equity markets as per Sharpe ratio
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Which probable development is most likely to materially worsen equity market stability in the near term according to the FSR December 2025?
A. Gradual monetary tightening.
B. Moderate earnings slowdown.
C. Correction in AI-driven asset prices.
D. Geopolitical tensions.
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Which structural shift has reduced the impact of US equity corrections on Indian markets?
A. Increased sectoral concentration.
B. Declining beta and reduced co-movement with US markets.
C. Higher foreign ownership.
D. Greater AI exposure.
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What has primarily underpinned the resilience of Indian equities despite FPI outflows?
A. Surplus systemic liquidity and easy financial conditions.
B. Strong foreign portfolio inflows.
C. Elevated IPO activity.
D. Robust and rising domestic institutional investor participation.
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Despite record highs in global equity prices, which trend signals rising vulnerability?
A. Declining volatility amid stretched valuations.
B. Rising policy rates.
C. Widening credit spreads.
D. Falling trading volumes.
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How the funding composition of banks evolved when compared to the previous year (Sep 2025 vis-à-vis Sep 2024).
A. banks are relying more on ‘equity capital’ as a primary source of funding
B. funds raised through ‘deposits’ have declined in Sep 2025 vis-à-vis Sep 2024
C. access to ‘central bank funding’ was higher during the year
D. none of the above
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With respect to consumer segment loans, choose the correct option:
A. For SCBs, the share of below prime borrowers increased for gold loans while it remained steady for unsecured business loans for during the period Sep 2024 to Sep 2025
B. NBFCs saw improvement in the share of below prime borrowers for both gold loans and unsecured business loans during the period Sep 2024 to Sep 2025
C. Among NBFCs and SCBs, the share of prime and above borrowers to total borrowers for both gold loans and unsecured business loans was the highest for SCBs for Sep 2024.
D. None of the above
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Consider the following statements regarding the Banking Stability Indicator (BSI):
1. A lower value of the BSI indicates improvement in the overall stability of the banking system.
2. The BSI in September 2025 remained below its long-term average, despite some weakening in liquidity and profitability indicators.
3. Improvement in asset quality and soundness fully offset the deterioration in liquidity and profitability.
4. The BSI is constructed such that movement away from the centre in the Banking Stability Map indicates a reduction in risk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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With reference to MSME credit trends in India, as discussed in the FSR December 2025, consider the following statements:
1. MSME credit growth outpaced overall bank credit growth and the share of MSME credit in total non-food bank credit is about one-fifth.
2. The improvement in MSME asset quality has been broad-based across industry and services, although micro enterprises continue to exhibit relatively higher delinquency levels.
3. MSME credit to sectors exposed to higher US tariffs has shown a sharp deterioration in asset quality, reflected in higher SMA (Special mention accounts) and GNPA (gross non-performing asset) ratios compared to overall MSME credit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Which segment of NBFCs has recorded a sharp increase in credit cost?
A. Upper Layer NBFCs
B. Middle Layer NBFCs
C. NBFC-MFIs
D. Fintech firms
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Despite a downward trend in the GNPA ratio, stress within the NBFC sector remains evident, as reflected by:
A. Falling slippage ratios
B. Rising fresh accretions to NPAs and write-offs
C. Declining credit costs
D. Improving liquidity buffers
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With reference to the financial position of September 2025, stress tests on UCBs were conducted on:
A. 46 UCBs with assets > INR 5,000 crore; covering about 72% of assets
B. 205 UCBs with assets > INR 500 crore; covering about 72% of sector’s assets
C. 174 UCBs with assets > INR 500 crore; covering about 95% of the gross loans and advances of the sector
D. 1,389 UCBs; covering more than 90% of the gross loans and advances of the sector
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In the joint solvency-liquidity contagion analysis (Sep 2025), failure of the bank with the maximum capacity to cause contagion losses would cause:
A. Solvency loss 3.4% of total Tier 1 capital of SCBs; liquidity loss 0.3% of HQLA of the banking system
B. Solvency loss 2.3% of total Tier 1 capital of SCBs; liquidity loss 0.4% of HQLA of the banking system
C. Solvency loss 2.3% of total Tier 1 capital of SCBs; liquidity loss 0.3% of HQLA of the banking system
D. Solvency loss 0.4% of total Tier 1 capital of SCBs; liquidity loss 2.3% of HQLA of the banking system
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In the macro stress test’s adverse scenarios, which scenario assumes that the central bank has limited policy space to ease the policy rate to boost growth?
A. Baseline scenario
B. Adverse scenario 1
C. Adverse scenario 2
D. Both adverse scenarios 1 and 2
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Under the hypothetical adverse scenario 1 and 2 of macro stress test, how many of the 46 major SCBs may need to dip into the capital conservation buffer (CCB) by March 2027, assuming no additional capital infusion?
A. 1 under adverse scenario 1; 2 under adverse scenario 2
B. 2 under adverse scenario 1; 3 under adverse scenario 2
C. 3 under adverse scenario 1; 4 under adverse scenario 2
D. 2 under adverse scenario 1; 4 under adverse scenario 2
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Under the severe credit risk shock (2 SD), the depletion in system-level CRAR for SCBs stood at around:
A. 180 bps
B. 380 bps
C. 260 bps
D. 520 bps
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In September 2025, the MTM impact of interest rate shocks on derivatives portfolios ________, compared to March 2025:
A. Declined significantly
B. Remained unchanged
C. Increased in magnitude
D. Turned fully positive
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The Financial Stability Report (December 2025) notes that during the period under review, the insurance sector exhibited:
A. Significant erosion in solvency margins due to market volatility
B. Sharp divergence between life and non-life solvency ratios
C. Stable solvency positions alongside steady profitability
D. Widespread breaches of internal solvency limits
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For
which of the following sources of funds do NBFC-UL have a higher dependence than NBFC-ML.
A. Borrowing from banks
B. Debentures (excluding debentures subscribed by banks)
C. Commercial paper (excluding commercial paper subscribed by banks)
D. Both a & c
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What proportion of borrowings of NBFC-ML is secured?
A. Approx 85%
B. Approx 65%
C. Approx 55%
D. Approx 45%
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What indicators of NBSI improved in September 2025 vis-à-vis March 2025?
A. Efficiency and Soundness
B. Asset Quality and Liquidity
C. Asset Quality and Profitability
D. Soundness and Liquidity [[[
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Which of the following entity is both the largest providers of funds to AIFIs and also largest receiver of funds from AIFI (AIFI- All India Financial Institutions)
A. NBFC
B. Mutual Funds
C. SCBs
D. Insurance Companies
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Which of the following interpretations best explains why sizeable unrealised gains in banks’ investment portfolios do not necessarily prevent CRAR and CET1 depletion under a 250 basis points parallel upward shift in the INR yield curve?
A. Unrealised gains are fully excluded from regulatory capital and therefore play no role in interest rate stress outcomes.
B. Unrealised gains are predominantly embedded in HTM portfolios, which are insulated from mark-to-market valuation, and hence cannot offset valuation losses in AFS and FVTPL portfolios when interest rates rise.
C. Interest rate stress tests assume immediate realisation of unrealised gains prior to applying the shock, neutralising their capital impact.
D. Higher unrealised gains mechanically shorten portfolio duration, reducing sensitivity to parallel yield curve shifts.
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Which of the following interpretations best captures the systemic implication of growing interconnectedness between banks and non-bank financial institutions, as reflected in bilateral exposure patterns?
A. Increased interconnectedness reduces systemic risk by improving liquidity redistribution across financial entities.
B. Although interconnectedness enhances funding access, it also raises the potential for risk transmission across institutional categories, especially under stress scenarios.
C. Interconnectedness has no material stability implications because exposures are fully collateralised.
D. Rising interconnectedness primarily affects profitability rather than financial stability.
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Despite strong capital adequacy and improving asset quality, the Financial Stability Report (December 2025) notes a marked deceleration in profit growth for scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) in 2025. Which explanation best captures the internal earnings dynamics highlighted in the report?
A. Weak credit growth and falling deposit mobilisation jointly reduced banks’ interest income and fee-based earnings.
B. Higher provisioning requirements and falling capital ratios compressed profitability despite stable income growth.
C. Profit growth slowed primarily due to rising credit costs driven by higher slippages in personal and industrial loans.
D. Muted net interest income (NII) growth, combined with a declining net interest margin (NIM), led banks to rely more heavily on other operating income to sustain profitability.
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Credit Concentration Risk Index (CCRI) assesses systemic vulnerability arising from borrower concentration.
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects both the construction and interpretation of CCRI?
A. CCRI measures the maximum CRAR loss caused by the single largest borrower default and therefore captures tail risk but not cumulative concentration effects.
B. CCRI is computed as the ratio of cumulative capital depletion from sequential borrower defaults to total system capital, with higher values indicating weaker capital adequacy.
C. CCRI is defined as the ratio of the area between the empirical CRAR depletion curve and a straight-line benchmark to the total area above that benchmark, with higher values indicating greater borrower concentration risk.
D. CCRI compares CRAR losses under stressed-advances-based shocks versus exposure-based shocks, and higher CCRI values imply greater sensitivity to provisioning assumptions.
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With the present deposit insurance limit of ₹5 lakh, ___ per cent of the total number of deposit accounts were fully insured and ______ per cent of the total value of all assessable deposits were insured as on September 30, 2025. deposits were insured as on September 30, 2025.
A. 98.3, 43.5
B. 43.5, 98.3
C. 42.1, 97.3
D. 97.3, 42.1
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COP 30, the 2025 United Nations Climate Change Conference took place in ____ in November 2025.
A. Brazil
B. France
C. South Africa
D. US
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Complaints related to ________ formed the highest number of complaints received during the Q2 2025-26 by the SEBI with respect to the Indian Securities Markets.
A. Stockbroker
B. Mutual Fund
C. Stock Exchange
D. Listed Company- Equity Issue (Dividend/ Transfer/ Transmission/ Duplicate Shares/ Bonus Shares, etc.)
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The FREE-AI Committee constituted by the Reserve Bank of India has formulated seven Sutras to guide AI adoption in the financial sector.
Which of the following are included in the seven sutras?
1. Dynamic Adaptability
2. Fairness and Equity
3. Understandable by design
4. Safety, Resilience and Sustainability
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
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According to the Reserve Bank’s directions on investment in Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) by Regulated Entities (REs),
what is the maximum percentage of an AIF scheme’s corpus that a single RE may invest in?
A. 5% of the corpus
B. 10% of the corpus
C. 20% of the corpus
D. 100% of the corpus

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