RBI | BR | FEMA | PSS ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 96 MCQs

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RBI | BR | FEMA | PSS ⏳ Published: Sep 2026 | 🎯 96 MCQs

Q 1 / 96
If you wanted to know the definitions of terms like Regional Rural Bank, Co-
operative Society and Pisciculture, which statutory act you would refer to?
A. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981
B. Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976
C. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the Bank as it may
A. On the recommendations of Central Board of the Bank
B. Directly to the Bank in matters of Public Interest
C. After consultation with the Governor of the Bank
D. No, it cannot give directions to the Bank
RBI may establish Offices/Branches abroad……..
A. with the approval of Central Board
B. with the previous sanction of the Central Government
C. with the approval of Governor
D. RBI Act prohibits RBI from establishing foreign Offices
If Governor of the Bank has completed first term of 3 years, he/she will be eligible for
re-appointment for another term not exceeding
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
If there is any defect in the constitution of the Central Board of the Bank……
A. the proceeding of the Board shall stand null and void retrospectively
B. the act or proceeding of the Board shall stand null and void with prospective effect
C. the act or proceeding of the Board shall not be questioned
D. the matter is referred to the Central Government
The nomination as
Director or member of a Local Board
of
any
person
who is a member of Parliament or the Legislature of any state shall be void, unless
within _______ of the date of his nomination, he ceases to be such member
A. two months
B. three months
C. six months
D. one year
A Local Board shall be constituted for each of the four areas specified in the First
Schedule -
1. shall consist of five members to be appointed by the Central Government to
represent, as far as possible, territorial interests and the interests of Regional
Rural Banks.
2. members of Local Board are eligible for only continuous reappointment.
3. Local Board shall perform duties delegated by Central Government and
Governor.
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. Only 3 is correct
C. All are incorrect
D. Both 1 and 3 are correct
If the Deputy Governor is rendered incapable of executing his/her duties, Central
Government may appoint another person to officiate for him/her considering
recommendations of ____________ and such person will hold office for__________
A. Governor; 3 years
B. Central Board; a term to be determined by Central Government
C. Governor; a term not exceeding 5 years
D. Central Board; the residual period of the term of previous incumbent
As per the RBI Act,
1. The Bank can accept money as deposits, repayable with interest from banks or
any other person under the Standing Deposit Facility Scheme for the purpose of
economic stability.
2. The Bank can make loans and advances to Warehousing Corporation, repayable
on expiry of fixed periods not exceeding 60 days, against securities of the
Central Government or any State Government.
Select the correct option:
A. Both are correct
B. Only 1 is correct
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both are incorrect
As part of its regulatory mandate, the Bank can extend loans and advances to
various institutions. If the Bank has extended such facility to EXIM Bank against
security of promissory notes, the prescribed maturity period for such instrument is
A. within ten years from the date of such loan or advance
B. within five years from the date of such loan or advance
C. within fifteen years from the date of such loan or advance
D. No such prescription on maturity period
As per the RBI Act,
1. the Bank may issue demand drafts, telegraphic transfers and other kinds of
remittances made payable at its own offices or agencies;
2. the Bank may deal in derivatives, and, with the approval of the Central
Government, in any other financial instrument;
Select the correct option:
A. Both are correct
B. Only 1 is correct
C. Only 2 is correct
D. Both are incorrect
As per RBI Act, the Bank can keep deposits with _________ for such specific
purposes as may be approved by ______
A. State Bank, Central Board
B. NABARD, Central Government
C. State Bank, Central Government
D. Any Scheduled Commercial Bank, Governor
Bank may overlook limitations placed by RBI Act for purchase, sell or discount any
ineligible bill of exchange or promissory note on account of regulating credit in the
interest of
A. agriculture
B. indigenous crafts
C. MSMEs
D. regulatory sandbox
With respect to transacting Government Business in India, if there is any failure to
reach agreement on the conditions, the decision of _________ shall prevail.
A. Governor
B. Decision only by mutual agreement
C. Central Board
D. Central Government
The Bank has decided to print notes of denomination of β‚Ή9000. Who has the
authority to issue advisory for the same?
A. Central Board
B. Central Government
C. Governor
D. Bank cannot print notes for specified denomination
What is the only exception citing which the Bank may issue excessively soiled
notes?
A. shortage of particular denomination
B. recovery for specified purposes
C. cultural/religious reasons
D. Bank is not authorized to issue excessively soiled notes
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If the Bank fails to carry out any of the obligations imposed on it under RBI Act
1. Central Government may declare the Central Board to be superseded.
2. Agency may be appointed to run the affairs of the Bank having powers of the
Central Board.
3. Central Government shall place a full report before Parliament within 6 months.
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. All are incorrect
C. Only 3 is correct
D. Both 1 & 2 are correct
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Bank is not authorized to carry which of these functions?
A. Keeping deposits with State Bank
B. Safe custody of articles
C. Draw or accept bills payable otherwise than on demand
D. Issue of demand drafts, telegraphic transfers
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Assets of Issue Department (ID):
a
Gold coin, Gold bullion and Domestic securities not less than β‚Ή200 crores
b
Gold coin and Gold bullion shall be held in India not less than 80%
c
Maturity Period of Foreign Securities held
within 10 years
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. Only 3 is correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are correct
D. All are incorrect
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Bank may appoint eligible Bank as its agent at all/any place in India, considering,
1. public interest, financial inclusion, convenience of banking, banking
development.
2. other factors which in its opinion are relevant.
Select the correct option:
A. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
B. Both 1 and 2 are correct
C. Only 1 is correct
D. Only 2 is correct
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Bank may levy fees for furnishing credit information to Banking Companies. What
is the upper ceiling for application of such fee?
A. β‚Ή25
B. β‚Ή100
C. β‚Ή250
D. β‚Ή500
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As per RBI Act, Bank may determine the policy and give directions to all or any of
the NBFCs. In reference to this,
which of the following is not one of the prescribed
Policy Areas?
A. Accounting Standards
B. Business Continuity Processes
C. Credit conversion factors for off-balance-sheet items
D. Income Recognition
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Who is the Vice Chairperson of the Joint Committee dealing with instrument
jurisdiction matters of the various Financial Regulators?
A. Secretary, Department of Financial Services
B. Union Finance Minister
C. Chairman, SEBI
D. Governor of RBI
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Which of the following is not a member of the search-cum-selection committee
created for the appointment of external members of MPC?
A. Governor of RBI
B. Cabinet Secretary
C. Secretary, Department of Financial Services
D. Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
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As per the RBI Act,
1. Statutory Auditors hold office for a term of 1 year.
2. Controller General of Accounts may examine and report upon the accounts of
the Bank
3. Statutory Auditors may examine any Director or officer of the Bank in relation to
accounts of the Bank
Select the correct option:
A. All are correct
B. Only 1 is correct
C. Both 2 & 3 are correct
D. Both 1 & 3 are correct
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Section 10A(2) of the BR Act mandates that not less than what percentage of the
total number of members of the Board of Directors of a banking company shall consist
of persons with special knowledge or practical experience (e.g., accountancy, law,
finance)?
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 51%
D. 75%
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Under Section 17 of the BR Act, every banking company incorporated in India shall
transfer to its reserve fund a sum equivalent to not less than what percentage of its
profits before any dividend is declared?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
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Which section of the BR Act states that the rates of interest charged by banking
companies shall not be subject to scrutiny by courts?
A. Section 21A
B. Section 35A
C. Section 45
D. Section 47A
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For a banking company incorporated outside India, what specific item must it
deposit and keep deposited with the RBI under Section 11(2) of BR Act?
A. A list of all its foreign directors.
B. A copy of its global balance sheet.
C. An amount calculated at 20% of its profit for the year from Indian business.
D. Gold equivalent to 5% of its total Indian assets.
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Section 12 of BR Act regulates a bank's capital structure. It mandates that a banking
company's paid-up capital shall not be less than:
A. One-fourth of its authorized capital.
B. One-third of its subscribed capital.
C. One-half of its subscribed capital.
D. The same amount as its authorized capital.
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What is the maximum commission, brokerage, or discount a banking company can
pay (as a percentage of the issue price) on the sale of its shares under Section 13 of
BR Act?
A. 1.0%
B. 2.5%
C. 5.0%
D. 10.0%
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Under Section 10B of BR Act, a whole-time chairman of a banking company shall
hold office for a maximum period of:
A. Two years, after which he must retire.
B. Three years but is eligible for re-appointment.
C. Five years but is eligible for re-appointment.
D. An indefinite period, at the pleasure of the Board.
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As per Section 12B of BR Act, no person shall acquire shares or voting rights in a
banking company, which would take their total holding to or above what percentage,
without the prior approval of the RBI?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 26%.
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Which section of BR Act gives the RBI the power to "caution or prohibit banking
companies... against entering into any particular transaction or class of transactions"?
A. Section 21
B. Section 35A
C. Section 36(1)(a)
D. Section 47A
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Under Section 46(1) of BR Act, if a person wilfully makes a false statement in any
return or balance sheet, they shall be punishable with:
A. A fine of up to β‚Ή10 lakh only.
B. Imprisonment for a term up to one year or a fine.
C. Imprisonment for a term up to three years, or a fine up to β‚Ή1 crore, or both.
D. A public censure and disqualification from the industry.
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β€’
Assertion (A): The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2024/2025, requires Public
Sector Banks to transfer unclaimed bond interest to the Depositor Education and
Awareness Fund (DEAF).
β€’
Reason (R): The amendment expanded the scope of unclaimed funds to be
transferred, but it directs them to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF),
not the DEAF.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Section 10A(2)(a) specifies that a bank's board must have directors with special
knowledge or practical experience.
Which of the following fields are explicitly
mentioned? (Select all that apply)
1. Agriculture and Rural Economy
2. Information Technology
3. Law
4. Marketing and Human Resources
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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β€’
Statement: A banking company should be allowed to set up a subsidiary that
exclusively trades in agricultural commodities like wheat and sugar.
β€’
Argument I: No, Section 8 explicitly prohibits banks from directly or indirectly dealing
in the buying or selling of goods.
β€’
Argument II: Yes, Section 19 allows a bank to form a subsidiary for any business
mentioned in Section 6(1), and Section 6(1) is very broad.
A. Only Argument I is strong.
B. Only Argument II is strong.
C. Both Argument I and II are strong.
D. Neither Argument I nor II is strong.
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For an amalgamation of two banking companies under Section 44A, which of the
following conditions are mandatory? (Select all that apply)
1. The scheme must be approved by the Central Government before being sent to shareholders.
2. The scheme must be approved by a resolution passed by a majority in number representing two-thirds in value of the shareholders of each company.
3. The scheme must be sanctioned by the Reserve Bank of India.
4. The scheme must also be approved by the Competition Commission of India.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4
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Part V (Section 56) applies the BR Act to co-operative banks with modifications.
Which of the following are valid modifications? (Select all that apply)
1. References to "memorandum of association" are construed as references to "byelaws".
2. The power of RBI to supersede the Board of Directors (Sec 36AAA) is applicable to co-operative banks.
3. Co-operative banks are fully exempt from maintaining a cash reserve (Section 18).
4. Provisions relating to minimum paid-up capital (Section 11) are modified for co-operative banks.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Question: Match the concept in Column I with its corresponding numerical limit
or percentage from the Act in Column II.
Column I (Concept)
Column II (Limit)
A. Minimum % of directors with special knowledge (Sec 10A) (i) 30%
B. Max % of paid-up capital a bank can hold in another company (Sec 19) (ii) 10% (can be raised to 26%)
C. % of profit to be transferred to Reserve Fund (Sec 17) (iii) 51%
D. Voting rights cap for a single shareholder (Sec 12) (iv) 20% A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
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Question: Match the recent amendment (2024-2025) in Column I with its primary
implication in Column II.
Column I (Amendment)
Column II (Implication)
A. Change to Sec 5(ne) (i) Aligns CRR calculation with calendar months
B. Change to Sec 45ZA (ii) Raises "substantial interest" threshold to β‚Ή2 crore
C. Change to definition of "fortnight" (Sec 18) (iii) Extends co-operative bank director tenure to 10 years
D. Change to Sec 56 (modifying Sec 10A) (iv) Allows up to four nominees for a deposit account A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
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Question: A banking company is prohibited from granting any loans or advances on the
security of its (a) ____ ____. Furthermore, it cannot grant unsecured loans to any firm in which
any of its directors is interested as a (b) ____ or (c) ____. These restrictions are specified in
Section (d) ____.
A. (a) own shares, (b) partner, (c) guarantor, (d) 20
B. (a) agricultural land, (b) auditor, (c) employee, (d) 19
C. (a) own shares, (b) manager, (c) employee, (d) 21A
D. (a) gold, (b) director, (c) shareholder, (d) 21
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Question: Under Section 35A, the RBI may issue directions to banking companies in the
A. ____ ____. A 2017 addition, Section 35AB, gives RBI specific power to issue directions for the resolution of (b) ____ ____. A. (a) regional interest, (b) director conflicts
B. (a) public interest, (b) stressed assets
C. (a) government's interest, (b) audit failures
D. (a) public interest, (b) fraudulent loans
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Case Study: Mr. Sharma, a depositor, dies in October 2025. He had a nomination
form from 2023 naming his son as the sole nominee. His daughter claims that in
September 2024, Mr. Sharma visited the bank and verbally instructed the manager to
add her as a 50% nominee. The bank's records do not show this.
Question:
Which of the following represents the bank's correct legal position based on
Section 45ZA and the 2024/2025 amendments?
A. The bank must pay 50% to the son and 50% to the daughter, as the 2024/2025 amendment allows multiple nominees and the verbal instruction (though unrecorded) shows intent.
B. The bank must pay 100% to the son, as nominations (and any variations) must be made "in the prescribed manner" (i.e., in writing) to be legally valid. The verbal instruction is not binding.
C. The bank must freeze the account and refer the matter to the High Court, as the 2024/2025 amendment allowing multiple nominees conflicts with the 2023 single-nominee form.
D. The bank must pay 100% to the daughter, as her claim of a later instruction (Sep 2024) supersedes the older (2023) nomination form.
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Case Study: 'Apex Bank Ltd.' wants to appoint Ms. Das to its Board of Directors in
November 2025. Her spouse holds shares in 'Apex Bank Ltd.' with a paid-up value of
β‚Ή1.8 Crores (INR 18 million).
Question: Based on the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 (effective Aug 1, 2025),
which analysis is correct?
A. Ms. Das is disqualified. Her spouse's holding exceeds the β‚Ή5 lakh "substantial interest" limit, making her ineligible under Section 10A.
B. Ms. Das is eligible. The 2025 amendment raised the "substantial interest" threshold (Sec 5(ne)) to β‚Ή2 crore. Since her spouse's holding is below this new limit, she is not disqualified under Section 10A.
C. Ms. Das is eligible, but only if her spouse places the shares in a blind trust, as required by Section 10A.
D. Ms. Das is disqualified. The 2025 amendment is irrelevant, as Section 10A disqualifies a director if their relative holds any shares, regardless of value.
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Case Study: As of November 2025, Mr. Reddy has been a director on the board of
'Mandya District Central Co-operative Bank' for 9 consecutive years. In the same month,
he is also elected to the board of the 'Karnataka State Co-operative Bank', of which the
Mandya bank is a member.
Question: Based on the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2024/2025, which analysis is
correct?
A. Both actions are illegal. The maximum tenure is 8 years, and dual directorship is prohibited by Section 16.
B. The 9-year tenure is legal (new limit is 10 years for co-ops), but the dual directorship is illegal under Section 16.
C. Both actions are legal. The 2024/2025 amendments (via Section 56) increased the co-op director tenure to 10 years and created an exception for dual directorship between a central co-op bank and a state co-op bank.
D. The dual directorship is legal, but the 9-year tenure is illegal. The tenure limit of 8 years was not changed for co-operative banks.
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Analytical Question: A large commercial bank (Bank A) is in default. A large Urban
Co-operative Bank (Bank B) is severely mismanaged.
Question: Which option correctly contrasts the RBI's powers under Section 35AA (for
Bank A) and Section 36AAA (for Bank B)?
A. Sec 35AA: RBI can direct the bank to initiate insolvency under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Sec 36AAA: RBI can directly supersede the Board and appoint an Administrator.
B. Sec 35AA: RBI can directly supersede the Board of Bank A. Sec 36AAA: RBI can only direct Bank B to initiate insolvency under the Companies Act.
C. Sec 35AA & 36AAA: Both sections give RBI the identical power to supersede the board of any bank.
D. Sec 35AA: RBI can direct the bank to initiate insolvency under the SARFAESI Act. Sec 36AAA: RBI can remove the CEO but not the entire board.
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Case Study: During FY 2024-25, 'City Co-operative Bank' repeatedly fails to comply
with KYC norms and fraud reporting, contravening RBI directions.
Question: Based on RBI's documented actions in 2024-2025,
what is the specific power
and process for penalizing the bank?
A. Power: Section 35A; Process: RBI can immediately freeze the bank's operations without notice.
B. Power: Section 47A; Process: RBI must first issue a "show cause" notice and provide a "reasonable opportunity of being heard" before imposing a monetary penalty.
C. Power: Section 36AA; Process: RBI can remove the CEO and Board of Directors without notice.
D. Power: Section 46; Process: RBI must file a criminal complaint in the High Court, which is the only body that can impose a penalty.
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Case Study: 'Jaipur Banking Company' (a non-scheduled bank) calculates its
Cash Reserve under Section 18 for October 1-15, 2025, based on its liabilities from the
"fortnight" of "Saturday, Sept 20 to Friday, Oct 3".
Question: Why is this calculation incorrect, according to the Banking Laws
(Amendment) Act, 2024/2025?
A. The calculation is correct, as "fortnight" is defined as Saturday to the second following Friday.
B. It is incorrect. The amendment re-defined "fortnight" to be fixed calendar periods: (i) 1st to 15th of a month and (ii) 16th to the last day of a month. The bank used the old definition.
C. It is incorrect. Cash Reserves under Section 18 are calculated daily, not based on a preceding fortnight.
D. It is incorrect. The 2024/2025 amendment abolished the concept of a "fortnight" for CRR calculation entirely.
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Anagram Puzzle: The New Manager
Question: Unscramble the anagram ROAM STRAD IN IT. This is the person appointed
by the RBI under Section 36AAA (for co-op banks) to manage a bank whose board has
been superseded. Which option correctly identifies the key power of this person?
A. Their powers are valid even if they are normally exercisable only by a resolution of the general meeting.
B. Their primary role is to advise the Central Registrar on winding up the bank.
C. To conduct a special audit and submit a report to the RBI.
D. They are appointed under Section 36AA and can remove any other director.
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Logical Puzzle: The Prohibited Connection
Question: Section 5(ne) defines "substantial interest." This definition is the legal "glue"
that connects a director's governance eligibility (Section 10A) with a bank's lending
restrictions (Section 20). Which option best describes this link?
A. It acts as the common trigger for both: disqualifying a person from the board (10A) and prohibiting unsecured loans to a company (20) if a director holds this interest.
B. It links them by allowing unsecured loans (20) only if the director has a "substantial interest" and is also qualified under Section 10A.
C. It only links to Section 10A (director disqualification) and has no bearing on Section 20, which is about secured loans only.
D. It defines the minimum shareholding a director must have (10A) and the maximum loan amount a bank can give (20).
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Riddle: "Who Am I?"
Question: I am a power under the BR Act.
β€’
The Reserve Bank applies for me.
β€’
The Central Government grants me.
β€’
I provide a "time-out" for a distressed bank, staying all legal proceedings.
β€’
I am the necessary first step before the RBI can prepare a scheme of
amalgamation
for
that
bank.
Which option correctly identifies me, my section, and my maximum duration?
A. Identity: Moratorium; Section: 45; Max Period: Six months.
B. Identity: Suspension of Business; Section: 37; Max Period: Six months.
C. Identity: Moratorium; Section: 45; Max Period: One year.
D. Identity: Winding Up; Section: 38; Max Period: Indefinite.
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Odd One Out: The "Impostor" Director
Question: According to Section 10A(2)(a), a bank's board must have directors with
special knowledge.
Which of the following candidates is the "impostor" (not explicitly
listed), and why?
A. Impostor: The tech CEO (Information Technology). Justification: This field is not listed in Sec 10A(2)(a), whereas "Accountancy" and "Law" are.
B. Impostor: The successful farmer (Agriculture & Rural Economy). Justification: This field is not listed, whereas "Accountancy" and "Information Technology" are.
C. Impostor: The professor of law (Law). Justification: This field is not listed, whereas "Small-scale industry" and "Co-operation" are.
D. Impostor: The chartered accountant (Accountancy). Justification: This field is not listed, whereas "Finance" and "Economics" are.
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The Two-Act Problem: A Tale of Two Banks
Question:
β€’
'Alpha Commercial Bank' is in default. The RBI uses its power under Section [X]
of the BR Act to direct it to initiate a resolution process under the [Y] Act, 2016.
β€’
'Beta Co-operative Bank' is severely mismanaged. The RBI uses its power under
Section [Z] (as applied by Sec 56) to directly supersede its Board of Directors.
Which option correctly identifies [X], [Y], and [Z]?
A. [X] = 35AA; [Y] = Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC); [Z] = 36AAA
B. [X] = 35; [Y] = RBI Act; [Z] = 36
C. [X] = 35AA; [Y] = SARFAESI Act; [Z] = 35AB
D. [X] = 36AAA; [Y] = Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC); [Z] = 35AA
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The Reserve Bank may, on an application made to it in this behalf, authorise any
person to be known as authorised person to deal in foreign exchange or in
foreign securities, as an authorised dealer, money changer or offshore banking
unit or in any other manner as it deems fit. Under which section of the FEMA
ACT 1999 does RBI grants authorisation to entities for undertaking foreign
exchange business in India.
A. Sec 10(1)
B. Sec 11(2)
C. Sec 11(1)
D. Sec 3(1)
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Which of the following entities have the powers to ensure enforcement of laws
under the FEMA Act?
A. Department of Economic Affairs
B. Department of Enforcement
C. Department of financial services
D. Department of customs and central excise
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Which of the following statements are true?
A. The Central Government may, by notification, make rules and regulations to carry out the provisions under the FEMA Act.
B. The Reserve Bank of India may, by notifications, make rules and regulations under the FEMA Act.
C. only (a) above is true
D. none of the above is true.
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Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Current account transactions have an impact on the assets and liabilities of an entity and is permitted under sec 6 of the FEMA Act.
B. Capital account transactions does not impact the assets and liabilities of the entity and is permitted under section 6 of the FEMA Act.
C. Reserve Bank of India has the powers to issue directions to the authorised persons under section 11 of the FEMA Act
D. Any contravention under FEMA may be compounded within ninety days from the date of receipt of application by Reserve Bank in a manner prescribed by the Govt.
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RBI has granted permission to settle International Trade transaction in INR
subject to
which of the following conditions: -
1. In terms of Regulation 7(1) of Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit)
Regulations, 2016, AD banks in India have been permitted to open Rupee Vostro
Accounts. Accordingly, for settlement of trade transactions with any country,
AD bank in India may open Special Rupee Vostro Accounts of correspondent
bank/s of the partner trading country.
2. Indian importers undertaking imports through this mechanism shall make
payment in INR which shall be credited into the Special Vostro account of the
correspondent bank of the partner country, against the invoices for the supply
of goods or services from the overseas seller /supplier.
3. Indian exporters, undertaking exports of goods and services through this
mechanism, shall be paid the export proceeds in INR from the balances in the
designated Special Vostro account of the correspondent bank of the partner
country.
4. The export / import undertaken and settled in this manner shall be subject to
usual documentation and reporting requirements.
A. conditions 1 & 2 above
B. conditions 1 & 4 above
C. all of the above
D. None of the above
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The Surplus balances in the Special Rupee Vostro Accounts can be used for
which the following purposes?
1. β€˜Set-off’ of export receivables against import payables in respect of the overseas
buyers and suppliers.
2. Banks shall ensure that available funds in these accounts are first used towards
payment obligations arising out of already executed export orders / export
payments in the pipeline.
3. Payments for projects and investments and export/import advance flow
management.
4. Investment in Government Treasury Bills, Government securities, etc. in terms
of extant guidelines and prescribed limits, subject to FEMA and similar statutory
provision.
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2 & 3 above
C. 2 & 4 above
D. 2, 3 & 4 above
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As per the Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments Regulations 2019
1. any investment made by a person resident outside India shall be subject to the
entry routes, the investment limits and the attendant conditionalities for such
investment as laid down in these regulations.
2. The regulation permits Indian entities, mutual funds, venture capital funds, etc.,
to receive investment from persons resident outside India subject to conditions,
as prescribed.
3. A person resident outside India may trade in exchange-traded derivative
contracts approved by RBI, subject to prescribed limits and conditions.
4. A person resident outside India, permitted for the purpose by the Reserve Bank
in consultation with Central Government, may purchase or sell debt instruments
in the manner and subject to the terms and conditions specified.
A. All the above are correct
B. only 1 & 2 are correct
C. only 3 is incorrect
D. only 4 is incorrect
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Which of the following guidelines were issued in October 2025 Monetary Policy
regarding the Merchanting Trade Transactions?
A. AD bank shall close entries in IDPMS/EDPMS of value equivalent to Rupees 10 lakh per entry/bill or less based on the declaration provided by the importer/exporter.
B. On review RBI has decided to increase the time period for outlay of foreign exchange from four months to six months.
C. Person’s resident outside India that maintain a Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) for international trade settlement in Indian Rupees has now been permitted to invest the balances in non-convertible debentures/bonds and commercial papers issued by an Indian company.
D. None of the above.
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As per the recent amendment to the Foreign Exchange Management (Foreign
Currency Accounts by a Person Resident in India) Regulations, 2015 a β€œStartup”
would mean an entity recognised as a start-up by which department of Govt. of
India?
A. Department of Financial Services
B. Department of Commerce
C. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
D. MeitY
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A person resident in India, being an exporter, may open, hold and maintain a
Foreign Currency Account with a bank outside India, for realisation of full export
value and advance remittance received by it towards export of goods or
services.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the funds
available in the above account?
1. Funds in this account may be utilised by the exporter for paying for its imports
into India.
2. Funds in this account may be repatriated into India within a period not
exceeding the end of two month from the date of receipt of the funds.
3. Funds in this account may not be repatriated and can be maintained in an
interest-bearing account outside India.
4. Funds in this account may be repatriated into India within a period not
exceeding the end of three months in case of accounts maintained with banks
in an IFSC.
A. 1, 2 & 3 are true
B. 1, 2 & 4 are true
C. only 2 & 4 are true
D. only 4 is true
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In the wake of signing of Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between RBI
and which country in November 2024 that it was decided that India’s bilateral
trade transactions with that country would be settled in INR and/or the local
currency of that country in addition to the ACU mechanism?
A. Bhutan
B. Maldives
C. Iran
D. Myanmar
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As per the compounding matrix what will be fixed amount and the variable
amount in case of non-allotment of shares or allotment/refund after the
stipulated period for foreign investment if the period of delay / non-submission
is less than 1 year?
A. INR 50,000 & 0.30% of the amount under contravention
B. INR 30,000 & 0.50% of the amount under contravention
C. INR 30,000 & 0.30% of the amount under contravention
D. INR 50,000 & 0.50% of the amount under contravention
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As per the compounding matrix what will be fixed amount and the variable
amount in case of contraventions pertaining to issuance of any guarantee (other
than reporting contraventions) if the duration of the contravention is less that 1
year?
A. INR 2,00,000 & 0.060% of the amount under contravention
B. INR 5,00,000 & 0.050% of the amount under contravention
C. INR 4,00,000 & 0.060% of the amount under contravention
D. INR 2,00,000 & 0.050% of the amount under contravention
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As per the compounding matrix what will be fixed amount and the variable
amount in case of contraventions pertaining to non-reporting if the duration of
contravention is less than 1 year?
A. INR 50,000 & 0.50% of the amount under contravention
B. INR 75,000 & 0.050% of the amount under contravention
C. INR 1,00,000 & 0.75% of the amount under contravention
D. INR 1,00,000 & 0.050% of the amount under contravention
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Which of the following statements are true regarding the warehouses in β€œBharat
Mart”?
1. multimodal logistics network-based marketplace in United Arab Emirates (UAE)
that will provide Indian traders, exporters, and manufacturers access to the
markets in UAE as well as worldwide
2. AD banks may allow exporters to realise and repatriate full export value of
goods exported to β€˜Bharat Mart’ within nine months from the date of sale of the
goods from the warehouse.
3. AD banks may allow without any pre-conditions, Opening/hiring of a
warehouse by an Indian exporter with a valid Importer Exporter Code.
4. AD banks may allow remittances by the Indian exporter for initial as well as
recurring expenses for setup and continuing business operations of its offices.
A. All the above
B. 1, 3 & 4 above
C. 1 & 4 above
D. 1, 2 & 3 above
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Which of the following statements are False?
A. FEMA aims primarily to facilitate external trade and payments.
B. FEMA extends to the whole of India and also applies to all branches, offices, and agencies outside India that are owned or controlled by a person who is a resident of India.
C. Current account transactions are generally prohibited unless specifically permitted.
D. RBI issues regulations and the Central Govt. issues rules under FEMA.
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Which of the following transactions does not require RBI permission under
normal circumstances?
A. Borrowing from a non-resident Indian
B. Remittances for family maintenance
C. Investments in foreign company shares by resident individuals
D. Transfer of immovable property outside India.
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A resident Indian purchases shares of a foreign Company through remittance
under the LRS. Which FEMA rule governs this?
A. FEMA (Acquisition and transfer of immovable property) Regulations
B. FEMA (Current Account Transactions) Rules
C. FEMA (Transfer or Issue of any Foreign security) Regulations
D. FEMA (Export of Goods and Services) Regulations
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An NRI wants to open a rupee account jointly with a resident Indian relative.
Under FEMA this is: -
A. Not permitted
B. Requires RBI approval
C. Freely permitted
D. Permitted with certain conditions
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An Indian software exporter receives payment in foreign currency but keeps it
in a foreign bank account without repatriation. What FEMA provision is
violated?
A. Section 6 of the FEMA
B. Section 7 of the FEMA
C. Section 11 of FEMA
D. Section 13 of FEMA
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A non-bank fintech company launches a mobile payment app allowing P2P
transfers without RBI authorization, citing "small transaction volumes." The app
uses a third-party bank’s settlement infrastructure. Is this compliant with the
PSS Act?
A. Yes, as transaction volume is below β‚Ή10 lakh/day
B. Yes, since a bank handles settlement
C. No, authorization is mandatory regardless of volume
D. No, but only if it processes > 500 transactions/day
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A CCP fails to settle a large trade due to a member bank’s insolvency. The CCP
invokes its default fund but still has a shortfall. What does the Act prioritize?
A. Proportional loss-sharing among all members
B. Finality of settlement overrides insolvency laws
C. RBI’s immediate intervention to inject liquidity
D. Liquidation of the defaulting bank first
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A London-based payment aggregator processes INR transactions for Indian
merchants via a local partner. It claims it’s exempt as it "has no physical
presence in India. β€œ
What is the RBI’s stance?
A. Exempt since it’s foreign operated
B. Requires authorization if it processes payments for Indian residents
C. Only liable for tax compliance under FEMA
D. Must register under PSS Act only if transaction value exceeds β‚Ή1 crore
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An entity collects OTC derivative data from Indian participants but stores it in
Singapore. It argues data localization isn’t required. Does this violate the Act?
A. No, if data is accessible to RBI remotely
B. Yes, Trade Repositories must maintain data within India
C. Only if data includes sensitive personal information
D. No, for cross-border derivatives
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A stock exchange launches a "real-time settlement layer" for equity trades,
claiming it’s a settlement system exempt from PSS Act. Is this valid?
A. Yes, as stock exchanges are explicitly excluded (Section 2(i))
B. No, if it processes payment obligations it falls under PSS Act
C. Only if it uses RTGS infrastructure
D. Exempt if approved by SEBI
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An Indian company uses a foreign CCP for USD settlements. The CCP’s rules
allow reversal of settled transactions under "force majeure." Does this comply
with the PSS Act?
A. Yes, as foreign laws govern cross-border transactions
B. No, settlement must be final/irrevocable even if foreign law permits reversal
C. Only if the RBI grants a specific waiver
D. Yes, if the Indian counterparty consents
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RBI revokes a system’s authorization due to repeated settlement failures. The
operator claims, "no prior notice was given." What procedural safeguard
applies?
A. Revocation requires 30-day notice under Section 8(1)
B. Section 7(3) mandates a hearing opportunity before refusal/revocation
C. No notice needed if systemic risk is imminent
D. Central Government approval is mandatory first
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A bank fails to meet its settlement obligation, causing a chain failure. The
system provider claims, "it’s solely the bank’s fault." What does the PSS Act
imply?
A. System provider is absolved of liability
B. Provider must have risk-mitigation mechanisms under Section 21(2)(c)
C. RBI must compensate affected participants
D. Only the defaulting bank faces penalties
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A major payment app freezes transactions for 12 hours during a festival sale,
affecting 50 million users. Does this constitute "systemic risk" under PSS Act?
A. No, as it’s temporary
B. Yes, if disruption impacts monetary policy or payment system stability
C. Only if banks report liquidity shortages
D. No, unless losses exceed β‚Ή100 crore
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A blockchain-based remittance startup claims it doesn’t need authorization
because "it uses decentralized ledgers."
What is the RBI’s view?
A. Exempt as technology is innovative
B. Authorization required if it processes payment obligations
C. Only needs registration with FIPB
D. Exempt until transaction volume crosses β‚Ή500 crore
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A system participant complains the dispute panel took 90 days to issue a ruling,
violating "reasonable time" norms. What does the Act specify?
A. 30 days maximum under Section 24(1)
B. No fixed timeline, but RBI may intervene for delays
C. 60 days as per Master Direction
D. Panel must conclude within settlement cycle duration
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A court orders reversal of a settled transaction in a fraud case. The system
provider complies. Is this legally permissible?
A. Yes, courts have overriding jurisdiction
B. No, settlement is "final and irrevocable"
C. Only if fraud is proven
D. Permissible if the settlement occurred < 72 hours ago
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Under PSS Act, the finality of settlement applies even if:
A. The payment is reversed later
B. The funds are not physically paid yet
C. The transaction is disputed
D. The RBI issues a stop order
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The "duty to keep documents confidential" under Section 22 of PSS Act is
supplemented by the applicability of:
A. RBI Act, 1934
B. Bankers’ Book Evidence Act, 1891
C. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D. IT Act, 2000
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The term "settlement" under Section 2(n) of PSS Act includes settlement of:
A. Only monetary transactions
B. Securities, foreign exchange, and derivatives
C. Physical commodity trades
D. Insurance claims
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A system provider misses the 3-month deadline for submitting annual return as
per PSS Regulations 2008 but applies for extension after the deadline. Can the
RBI grant an extension under Regulation 6(2)?
A. Yes, extensions are automatically granted for first-time delays
B. No, extension request must be submitted before the deadline expires
C. Yes, but only if systemic risk is demonstrated
D. Only if the provider has no prior compliance violations
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In Form A, the applicant states the payment system will cover "the whole
country" but later operates only in Maharashtra.
What is the consequence under
the Regulations?
A. Automatic revocation of authorization under Regulation 7(2)
B. Breach of condition in Form B; RBI may issue a show-cause notice
C. Civil penalty of β‚Ή1 lakh under Regulation 30
D. No action if the provider applies for amendment within 6 months
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A PSS applicant claims in Form A to use "gross settlement" but implements net
settlement post-authorization. How does this affect authorization validity?
A. Requires only intimation to RBI within 30 days
B. Constitutes breach of condition in Form B;revocation grounds under Regulation 7
C. Permitted if net settlement increases system efficiency
D. No violation if participants consent in writing
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A Singapore-based payment system processes INR transactions for Indian
users but fails to appoint a resident officer in India as required under Regulation
4(3) (implied by Form B’s display requirements). Is this compliant with PSS
Regulations?
A. Yes, for entities with < β‚Ή100 crore annual volume
B. No, physical presence required for display of Certificate under Term 1 of Form B
C. Exempt if the entity is regulated by MAS (Monetary Authority of Singapore)
D. Compliant if returns are submitted to Mumbai office
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After getting authorization, a PSS provider shifts from card-based to UPI-based
processing without informing RBI. What does Regulation 6(3) of PSS act require
it to do?
A. Submission of revised Form A within 15 days
B. Furnishing updated operational details under Regulation 6(3)
C. Reapplication for authorization
D. No reporting needed for technology change
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The RBI seeks to use the security deposit to cover consumer losses from a
provider’s operational failure. Is this permitted under the PSS Regulations?
A. Yes, as a standard risk-mitigation measure
B. No, security deposit is for authorization validity, not consumer compensation
C. Only with prior approval from the Central Government
D. Permissible if losses exceed β‚Ή1 crore

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